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Q1
Which ossicle directly articulates with the head of the stapes?
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Q2
Wernicke's area, involved in language comprehension, is primarily located in:
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Q3
Which statement about temporal resolution of the auditory system is correct?
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D
Q4
Which of the following is NOT a factor that can influence the Speech Discrimination Score (SDS)?
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D
Q5
Which of the following hearing losses typically shows a Carhart notch at 2000 Hz on pure-tone audiometry?
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D
Q6
In the context of congenital hearing impairment, what does the 'C' in CHARGE syndrome stand for?
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Q7
In aural rehabilitation, the term 'auditory training' primarily refers to:
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Q8
The primary intervention approach for mild expressive language delay in preschoolers is:
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Q9
In the context of fluency therapy, what does the "delayed auditory feedback" (DAF) technique primarily aim to achieve?
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Q10
In the context of aphasia, what are 'neologisms'?
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Q11
Which of the following best describes the role of a speech-language pathologist in an interdisciplinary dysphagia team?
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Q12
Which statement regarding informed-consent documentation is true as per NHPC regulations?
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Q13
When working with a multidisciplinary team for disability rehabilitation in Nepal, who is the primary coordinator for the patient's goals in a patient-centered approach?
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Q14
In the context of epidemiology, 'Incidence' of a communication disorder refers to:
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Q15
Which of the following auditory findings is most characteristic of otitis media with effusion in a child?
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Q16
In a tympanogram, the pressure at which peak compliance occurs is called:
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Q17
Which of the following statements about the use of intratympanic gentamicin in unilateral Meniere's disease is correct?
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Q18
During a speech sound inventory, the clinician notes that /s/ is consistently realized as /ส/ in all lexical positions. This pattern is an example of which phonological process?
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Q19
In a multidisciplinary team meeting, the audiologist's role regarding family counseling is to:
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Q20
How many times greater is the intensity of a 60 dB SPL sound compared with the reference threshold of hearing (0 dB SPL)?
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Q21
A 55-year-old teacher presents with a breathy, weak voice and intermittent diplophonia. Laryngoscopy shows a unilateral vocal fold fixed in the paramedian position. The most likely diagnosis is:
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Q22
Which feeding problem is most characteristic in newborns with an unrepaired cleft palate?
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Q23
Which instrumental swallowing assessment is contraindicated in a patient who has a recent esophageal perforation?
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Q24
Which muscle is responsible for the protrusion of the tongue during the production of certain speech sounds?
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Q25
When a patient with right-sided pharyngeal wall weakness rotates the head to the left during swallowing, the bolus is primarily directed toward which side?
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Q26
The organ of Corti is situated upon which of the following membranes?
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Q27
Which pattern of deficits best describes transcortical motor aphasia?
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Q28
Which communication strategy does NOT belong to the set of recommendations for a client with a severe hearing loss using a hearing aid?
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Q29
In a speech audiometry test using a live-voice presentation, which factor most likely introduces variability in the results?
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Q30
In a 30-month-old who fails to follow simple two-step commands and has a vocabulary of fewer than 50 words, the most likely underlying issue is:
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Q31
Which of the following best explains why a patient with otosclerosis may have a normal acoustic reflex despite an elevated air-conduction threshold?
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D
Q32
The cerebellum influences speech motor output primarily through modulation of which brainstem structure?
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Q33
Long-term systemic aminoglycoside therapy is most commonly associated with which adverse effect?
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Q34
In a family-centered counseling session for a preschooler with expressive language delay, which technique most effectively promotes caregiver participation in goal setting?
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Q35
When differentiating childhood apraxia of speech from childhood dysarthria, which clinical feature is more characteristic of dysarthria?
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Q36
In a child with a speech sound disorder, the baseline data should be documented as:
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Q37
During a routine adult hearing assessment, the clinician records a click-evoked OAE with a probe-tube calibration at 95 dB SPL. Which of the following best describes the purpose of this calibration?
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D
Q38
Which of the following muscles is a true constrictor of the pharynx and is innervated by the vagus nerve via the pharyngeal plexus?
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Q39
The "Noise Exposure Forecast" model being piloted by Kathmandu Metropolitan City is intended to predict:
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D
Q40
Which ethical principle is most challenged when a clinician provides a lower-cost, less effective hearing aid to a poor patient because the patient cannot afford the gold standard?
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Q41
In perceptual evaluation of a child's speech, the clinician asks a listener to report the number of words correctly recognized from a sentence. This is an example of:
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Q42
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a standard speech audiometry protocol according to NHPC guidelines?
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D
Q43
If two sound waves of the same frequency and amplitude are combined, but one is shifted in time by exactly one-quarter of a cycle, what is the phase difference in degrees?
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Q44
Which of the following is the most suitable indicator to monitor the impact of a universal newborn hearing screening program over time?
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D
Q45
Which of the following is NOT a component of the PICO(T) framework?
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D
Q46
What is the primary purpose of the "Assessment" section in a SOAP note?
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Q47
In the hierarchy of prompts used during a language intervention, which of the following is considered the 'least intrusive' prompt?
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Q48
For a 5-month-old infant fitted with bilateral hearing aids, which aided speech-detection threshold satisfies candidacy for auditory-verbal therapy?
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Q49
If an infant ABR shows normal wave I latency but a delayed wave V, which auditory pathway structure is most likely involved?
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Q50
A patient with a unilateral lesion of the ventral cochlear nucleus would most likely present with which of the following?
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Q51
Which screening instrument is recommended by the Nepal syllabus for early detection of expressive language deficits in children aged 18-24 months?
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Q52
Which indicator is most appropriate for monitoring the effectiveness of a community noise-abatement program?
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Q53
Which of the following is an example of a social participation outcome measure recommended for evaluating speech-therapy interventions in community settings in Nepal?
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Q54
When a clinician is asked to provide an expert opinion for a legal case in Nepal, which of the following is the most ethical approach regarding the testimony?
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Q55
According to the DSM-5 classification, developmental stuttering is categorized as which type of speech disorder?
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Q56
In the context of aphasia, which structure is most commonly identified as the source of lesions causing conduction aphasia?
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Q57
Which practice is most effective in ensuring caregiver understanding of hearing aid maintenance?
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Q58
An adult with voice tremor and hoarseness is first seen by a speech-language pathologist. Which initial voice-therapy technique is most suitable?
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Q59
Spontaneous otoacoustic emissions (SOAEs) are most frequently detected in which population?
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Q60
Which pattern of intelligibility change has been observed in children with CAS who receive early intervention?
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Q61
In a pure-tone audiogram, a patient has air-conduction thresholds of 60 dB HL at all frequencies, but bone-conduction thresholds of 45 dB HL at the same frequencies. What type of hearing loss is present?
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Q62
Which instrument can be used to record transient evoked otoacoustic emissions (TEOAE) in a clinical setting?
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Q63
In a patient with a 'Single-Sided Deafness' (SSD) profile, what is the primary goal of cochlear implantation in the deaf ear?
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Q64
What does the term "practice gap" refer to in evidence-based practice?
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Q65
The population attributable fraction (PAF) for childhood otitis mediaโrelated hearing loss in a district is 15 %. This indicates that:
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Q66
Which perceptual characteristic is most typical of adductor spasmodic dysphonia?
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Q67
Which of the following statements about "stimulability" is FALSE?
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Q68
A newly hired audiologist is asked to perform a cochlear implant activation on a patient without any prior training in that specific device. The most ethically appropriate response is to:
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Q69
Which of the following acoustic measurements is most directly affected by the shape of the waveform rather than its overall amplitude?
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Q70
A head-and-neck radiation survivor develops thick, dry mucus. Which medication is most commonly prescribed to reduce viscosity and aspiration risk?
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Q71
In a patient with otosclerosis, which audiometric reflex is typically absent despite the presence of a Carhart notch?
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D
Q72
Which anatomical site is primarily activated by a click stimulus in the cochlea?
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Q73
Which of the following is the most likely cause of a sudden, profound sensorineural hearing loss in a young adult exposed to an explosion?
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D
Q74
Which mitochondrial DNA mutation is associated with aminoglycoside-induced ototoxicity and maternally inherited hearing loss?
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Q75
At what age should a child be able to imitate a simple rhythmic pattern (e.g., clapping)?
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Q76
According to NHPC guidelines, by what age should a child be expected to consistently combine two-word phrases (e.g., 'more milk')?
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Q77
Which ethical principle is most directly invoked when obtaining informed consent from a research participant?
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Q78
What is the purpose of including a 'clinical rationale' section in a hearing-aid fitting report?
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Q79
When deciding between group and individual therapy for a 9-year-old child with pragmatic language deficits, which factor most strongly favors group intervention?
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Q80
A patient has a history of prolonged exposure to certain medications and now exhibits bilateral symmetrical high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss. Which drug class is most commonly implicated?
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Q81
Which instrumental measure is considered the gold standard for quantifying vocal intensity in hypokinetic dysarthria management?
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D
Q82
Which muscle tenses the vocal ligament to increase pitch during phonation?
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D
Q83
Which of the following statements about telehealth for clinicians specializing in audiology and speech-language pathology in Nepal is TRUE according to NHPC guidelines?
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D
Q84
According to the WHO classification of hearing loss, a child with otitis media with effusion who has a pure-tone average of 27 dB HL in the better ear would be classified as having:
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Q85
In a patient with a sensorineural hearing loss, what is the expected finding on acoustic reflex testing?
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Q86
Which audiometric pattern is typically observed in Mรฉniรจre's disease during an early attack?
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Q87
The Nuffield Dyspraxia Programme-3 (NDP-3) emphasizes which component for children with severe CAS?
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Q88
Which cartilage of the larynx is shaped like a signet ring and is the only complete cartilaginous ring in the airway?
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Q89
Which of the following is a limitation of using a mobile app for pure-tone audiometry in community settings?
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Q90
The supraglottic swallow technique requires the patient to voluntarily hold the breath before the swallow to achieve closure of which structure?
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Q91
Which of the following parameters is NOT part of the routine calibration checklist for a clinical audiometer according to IEC 60645-1?
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Q92
A 60-year-old woman has bilateral symmetric high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss with preserved low-frequency hearing. Which condition is the most likely etiology?
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Q93
When providing intervention for a child with selective mutism, which initial step is MOST appropriate in the therapy hierarchy?
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Q94
Pulsatile tinnitus that is synchronous with the carotid pulse most often results from:
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Q95
In the context of articulation disorders, the term 'stimulability' refers to:
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D
Q96
The primary airstream mechanism for the production of click consonants is:
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D
Q97
A 62-year-old man presents after a left middle cerebral artery stroke with effortful, telegraphic speech, relatively preserved auditory comprehension, and impaired repetition. Which aphasia type best matches this profile?
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Q98
When counseling a family from a collectivist cultural background about a child's speech delay, which strategy is most appropriate?
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Q99
Students collectively deciding project assignments demonstrate integration of:
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Q100
When evaluating functional benefit of a remote microphone system in a classroom, which outcome measure is most appropriate for a school-aged child?
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BASLP Licensing Exam preparation SET 2
100 multiple-choice questions ยท 100 questions ยท 1h 30m (practice format) ยท Bachelor-level licensing
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