Bachelor of Physiotherapy (BPT) Licensing Exam preparation SET 2

Q1

In the brachial plexus, which nerve is formed by the union of the anterior divisions of the upper and middle trunks?

A

Median nerve

B

Ulnar nerve

C

Musculocutaneous nerve

D

Radial nerve

Q2

Which of the following best explains why endurance athletes have a higher capillary-to-fiber ratio in skeletal muscle?

A

Increased muscle fiber size

B

Reduced oxygen demand of muscles

C

Enhanced angiogenesis stimulated by chronic aerobic training

D

Decreased blood flow to active muscles

Q3

Which of the following is a correct application of body mechanics when transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair?

A

Bending at the waist to reach the patient

B

Keeping the feet close together to maintain balance

C

Using a wide base of support and pivoting the feet

D

Holding your breath to stabilize the core

Q4

A physiotherapist wants to use cryotherapy to reduce spasticity in a patient with spinal cord injury. Which parameter is most important?

A

Duration >20 minutes

B

Temperature below 5 °C

C

Application over the muscle belly for 10 - 15 minutes

D

Application over the joint only

Q5

When using interferential current for edema reduction, which carrier frequency is typically selected?

A

1 Hz

B

50 Hz

C

4000 Hz

D

100 Hz

Q6

Which tissue depth is most effectively heated by microwave diathermy at 915 MHz?

A

Superficial skin layers (≤5 mm)

B

Subcutaneous tissue (5 - 10 mm)

C

Deep muscle (20 - 30 mm)

D

Bone tissue (>30 mm)

Q7

A 45-year-old diabetic patient with peripheral neuropathy presents for laser therapy. What is the most important consideration?

A

Reduced sensation increases risk of thermal injury

B

Laser is contraindicated in all diabetic patients

C

Treatment requires higher power for effectiveness

D

Only visible wavelengths should be used

Q8

When applying NMES for muscle strengthening in a post-operative patient, which electrode placement approach follows the principle of optimal current flow through the target muscle?

A

Electrodes placed parallel to the muscle fibers on either side of the motor point

B

Electrodes placed directly over the muscle belly without consideration of fiber direction

C

Electrodes placed perpendicular to the muscle fibers at the distal tendon

D

Electrodes placed randomly around the joint near the affected muscle

Q9

During a session for a patient with post-stroke hemiparesis, the therapist chooses an assisted active ROM exercise for the affected wrist. Which of the following is an appropriate assistive method?

A

Using a pulley system that provides light resistance as the patient opens the hand

B

Therapist manually guiding the wrist while the patient attempts to move it

C

Patient performing wrist curls with a dumbbell

D

Applying heat before movement

Q10

A patient with a recent rotator cuff repair is cleared for initiating strengthening. Which exercise is safest to begin with?

A

Resisted external rotation with TheraBand at 5 lb tension

B

Full overhead press with dumbbells

C

Prone horizontal abduction with 2 kg weight

D

Standing lateral raise with 3 kg weight

Q11

Which parameter should be manipulated first when progressing a balance training program?

A

Surface instability

B

Movement complexity

C

Base of support width

D

Visual deprivation

Q12

Which of the following best describes the role of aerobic exercise in managing depression?

A

It worsens depressive symptoms due to increased fatigue

B

It has no effect on mood

C

It reduces depressive symptoms via endorphin release and neurogenesis

D

It only helps when combined with pharmacotherapy

Q13

In the Kaltenborn system, Grade I mobilization is specifically used for:

A

Increasing ROM

B

Reducing pain and maintaining mobility

C

Stretching the capsule

D

Breaking adhesions

Q14

Which of the following lumbar flexion postures is contraindicated in a patient with a posterolateral disc protrusion?

A

Supine knee-to-chest stretch

B

Prone press-up (Cobra)

C

Seated forward bend with knees flexed

D

Supine lying with pillow under knees

Q15

Which of the following statements about the prognosis of whiplash-associated disorder (WAD) grade II is most accurate?

A

Almost all patients recover within 1 week.

B

Approximately 50% experience persistent symptoms beyond 6 months.

C

Surgery is required in the majority of cases.

D

Symptoms never worsen after the initial injury.

Q16

A patient post-ORIF of a proximal femur fracture is experiencing anterior thigh pain during hip flexion at 4 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Iliopsoas tendon irritation due to hardware prominence

B

Quadriceps tendon rupture

C

Hip joint infection

D

Sciatic nerve entrapment

Q17

During gait analysis, a patient with a transfemoral prosthesis exhibits a prolonged stance time on the prosthetic side. What is the most likely cause?

A

Excessive knee flexion during swing

B

Inadequate prosthetic foot dorsiflexion stiffness

C

Socket misalignment causing knee hyperextension

D

Insufficient hip extension torque

Q18

Which of the following gait patterns is most desirable during the early rehabilitation phase after unilateral THA?

A

Antalgic gait with reduced stance time on the operated side

B

Trendelenburg gait with pelvis drop on the non-operated side

C

Symmetrical gait with equal step length

D

Circumduction gait due to limited hip flexion

Q19

Which gait training method is contraindicated for a patient with an incomplete T12 injury and severe osteoporosis?

A

Body-weight supported treadmill training

B

Overground gait training with walker

C

Reciprocating gait orthosis

D

Aquatic walking

Q20

Which of the following is considered the hallmark clinical triad of Parkinson's disease?

A

Ataxia, Spasticity, and Dysarthria

B

Tremor, Rigidity, and Bradykinesia

C

chorea, Athetosis, and Dystonia

D

Hypotonia, Tremor, and Myoclonus

Q21

In coordination training for hemiplegic cerebral palsy, which approach aligns best with Bobath principles?

A

High-intensity resistance training

B

Neurodevelopmental facilitation using reflex inhibitory postures

C

Task-oriented motor learning without hands-on guidance

D

Isolated joint mobilization

Q22

A patient 5 days after coronary artery bypass graft surgery shows a systolic blood pressure of 95 mmHg during standing, accompanied by dizziness. Which physiotherapy intervention should be modified?

A

Progressive gait training with assistance

B

Lower limb strengthening with resistance bands

C

Active range of motion exercises for the upper limbs

D

Sitting to standing transfers without support

Q23

Which ethical principle must be strictly observed while conducting research within a CBR program in a marginalized community?

A

Providing financial incentives only to participants who show improvement

B

Ensuring informed consent in culturally appropriate language and respecting autonomy

C

Withholding control group data until the study ends

D

Recruiting participants solely based on convenience

Q24

Which type of sampling method involves dividing the population into subgroups (strata) and then taking a random sample from each subgroup?

A

Convenience sampling

B

Snowball sampling

C

Stratified random sampling

D

Purposive sampling

Q25

Which objective measurement is most specific for early detection of carpal tunnel syndrome in postal workers?

A

Phalen's test

B

Median nerve conduction velocity

C

Grip strength dynamometry

D

Wrist circumference

Q26

In community physiotherapy for a child with oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis, which intervention is most appropriate to preserve joint range of motion?

A

heat therapy

B

passive range-of-motion exercises

C

high-intensity strength training

D

aquatic therapy

Q27

A patient with severe persistent asthma is scheduled for an exercise session. Which timing of short-acting bronchodilator (SABA) use is most effective to prevent exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?

A

30 minutes before the start of exercise

B

Immediately after the warm-up phase

C

During the cool-down period

D

Only if the patient feels dyspneic during exercise

Q28

In Mulligan's mobilization with movement (MWM) technique, the therapist applies a sustained accessory glide while the patient performs the symptomatic active movement. Which glide is commonly used to improve lumbar flexion in a patient with hypomobility at L4-L5?

A

Posterior-anterior glide on the inferior aspect of L4

B

Anterior-posterior glide on the superior aspect of L5

C

Lateral glide on the right transverse process of L4

D

Inferior glide on the superior aspect of L5

Q29

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for using transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) over the affected limb in a stroke patient?

A

Presence of a pacemaker

B

Open wound over area

C

Recent fracture

D

Skin allergy

Q30

In a community health physiotherapy program, participants are allocated to either a home-based exercise group or a clinic-based program based on the week they enroll, without randomization. This allocation method is known as:

A

Simple random sampling

B

Systematic sampling

C

Convenience sampling

D

Cluster sampling

Q31

Which assessment tool is specifically designed to evaluate repetitive upper-limb postural loading in office or assembly-line workers?

A

RULA

B

NIOSH Lifting Equation

C

OWAS

D

QEC

Q32

A 70-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and severe kyphoscoliosis is referred to a community pulmonary rehabilitation program. Which breathing technique is most beneficial for improving ventilation efficiency?

A

Breathing through the mouth with pursed lips during exertion

B

Diaphragmatic breathing with the patient in supine position

C

Deep breathing with breath-holding at total lung capacity

D

Rapid shallow breathing using accessory muscles

Q33

When positioning a patient for the lower-extremity D1 flexion pattern, the therapist should align the pelvis so that the ASIS is positioned:

A

Neutral

B

Slightly posteriorly rotated

C

Slightly anteriorly rotated

D

Elevated on the affected side

Q34

Which educational approach has been shown to most effectively improve inhaler technique adherence in COPD patients?

A

One-time verbal instruction

B

Distribution of printed leaflets

C

Video demonstration followed by patient return-demonstration

D

Group lecture without hands-on practice

Q35

Which of the following best defines the concept of "muscle synergy" in functional movement analysis?

A

A single muscle generating force across multiple joints

B

A group of muscles activated together to produce a coordinated movement

C

The ratio of antagonist to agonist muscle strength

D

The mechanical advantage of a muscle based on its moment arm

Q36

Which spinal nerve contributes to the formation of the lumbosacral trunk?

A

L4

B

L2

C

S1

D

T12

Q37

Which manual therapy technique is contraindicated in an acutely inflamed rheumatoid wrist joint?

A

Grade I joint glide performed for pain modulation

B

Low-velocity, low-amplitude (LVLA) mobilization

C

High-velocity, low-amplitude (HVLA) thrust manipulation

D

Gentle soft-tissue stretching

Q38

During continuous shortwave diathermy intended for therapeutic heating, the target increase in deep tissue temperature is approximately:

A

0.5-1 °C

B

1-2 °C

C

4-5 °C

D

10-12 °C

Q39

In early rehabilitation after total knee arthroplasty, which joint is most commonly addressed with active assisted ROM exercises?

A

Knee

B

Hip

C

Shoulder

D

Ankle

Q40

Which grade of Maitland mobilization is most appropriate for restoring capsular extensibility in a chronic, non-painful ankle stiffness?

A

Grade I

B

Grade II

C

Grade III

D

Grade IV

Q41

The neuroplasticity principle stating that neural circuits not actively engaged in task performance for an extended period begin to degrade is referred to as:

A

Use it or lose it

B

Use it and improve it

C

Specificity

D

Transference

Q42

Which of the following best explains the concept of individualization in prescribing aerobic conditioning programs?

A

All patients should follow the same standardized protocol

B

Exercise prescription should be tailored to personal fitness level, medical condition, and goals

C

Programs should emphasize identical workloads regardless of baseline fitness

D

Intensity must always exceed 80% of predicted maximum heart rate

Q43

Which of the following components is the primary target of the autoimmune attack in multiple sclerosis?

A

Myelin basic protein

B

Neurofilament proteins

C

Voltage-gated sodium channels

D

Acetylcholine receptors

Q44

A clinical trial is stopped early because the data safety monitoring board observes that the new intervention is causing serious adverse events. This is an example of which type of trial termination?

A

Futility stop

B

Planned interim analysis stop

C

Stop due to safety concerns (harm)

D

Loss of equipoise

Q45

In the definition of sarcopenia among older adults, which component is NOT typically included?

A

Low muscle strength

B

Low muscle mass

C

Low physical performance

D

High plasma creatinine

Q46

Which of the following is the most appropriate goal for a physiotherapy program focusing on a patient with 'Pink Puffers' (emphysema-predominant COPD)?

A

Aggressive suctioning of thick secretions

B

Reduction of air trapping and optimization of breathing patterns

C

Increasing the frequency of productive coughs

D

Increasing the use of accessory muscles for inspiration

Q47

A patient with a known malignancy overlying the lumbar spine is referred for TENS for mechanical low back pain. What is the correct clinical decision?

A

Apply high-frequency TENS at the lowest effective intensity

B

Apply TENS only around the periphery of the tumour

C

TENS is absolutely contraindicated over the malignant tissue

D

TENS may be used if intensity is below motor threshold

Q48

A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with Down Syndrome. The physiotherapist notes significant generalized hypotonia and joint laxity. Which of the following is the most appropriate primary objective in the early physiotherapy plan?

A

Aggressive stretching of the hamstrings

B

Promoting joint stability and core strength

C

Immediate gait training using a walker

D

Passive range of motion to increase flexibility

Q49

The forced stretch performed after a contract-relax technique mainly serves to:

A

Increase pain threshold

B

Extend the muscle beyond its passive range

C

Reduce antagonistic muscle activation

D

Shorten the muscle length

Q50

Which physical agent is most appropriate for managing inflammation in the acute phase of lumbar disc herniation?

A

Interferential therapy

B

Short-wave diathermy

C

Cold compression

D

Ultrasound therapy

Q51

When prescribing aerobic exercise in Phase II cardiac rehabilitation, a target Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) of 11–13 corresponds to which intensity level?

A

Light (30-40% VO₂max)

B

Moderate (40-60% VO₂max)

C

Vigorous (60-80% VO₂max)

D

Maximal (>80% VO₂max)

Q52

Which of the following clinical findings would be an absolute contraindication for performing a joint manipulation (Grade V) on a patient's spine?

A

Mild muscle spasm

B

Age over 60 years

C

Acute malignancy in the vertebral body

D

History of mild osteoarthritis

Q53

Which of the following is a key instruction the physiotherapist should give to a postoperative patient using an incentive spirometer to maximize effectiveness?

A

Exhale to residual volume before each slow maximal inspiratory effort

B

Inspire rapidly through the mouth without sealing the lips

C

Perform the maneuver only once per session to avoid fatigue

D

Use the device while lying completely flat on the back

Q54

A patient 5 weeks after total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach reports a feeling of the hip "giving way." Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Component loosening

B

Hip abductor muscle weakness

C

Sciatic nerve injury

D

Heterotopic ossification

Q55

Which assessment is most appropriate to measure reactive (perturbation-based) balance in a patient recovering from a stroke?

A

Berg Balance Scale

B

Timed Up and Go test

C

Mini-BESTest

D

Push and Release test

Q56

Which research design provides the highest level of evidence for establishing a causal relationship between a workplace ergonomic intervention and a reduction in work-related musculoskeletal disorders?

A

Randomised controlled trial (RCT) with cluster randomisation at the workplace level

B

Cross-sectional prevalence survey

C

Single-case observational study

D

Expert opinion narrative review

Q57

After a total hip arthroplasty (post-operative week 2), which position provides the greatest hip-flexor stretch while minimizing stress on the prosthetic joint?

A

Supine with the hip fully extended and a pillow under the thigh

B

Prone with the hip flexed

C

High-kneeling with the trunk upright

D

Standing with the back leg elevated on a step

Q58

A school-based CBR sports-injury-prevention module should involve which activity to honor the "participatory approach"?

A

Having students design a poster on safe warm-up routines

B

Providing a lecture on anatomy of injuries

C

Distributing pre-written exercise handouts

D

Ordering equipment from a central supplier

Q59

In a community-based intervention study, the investigators plan to allocate entire villages to either the exercise program or control condition to avoid contamination. This design is called:

A

Crossover trial

B

Cluster randomised trial

C

Factorial design

D

Stepped-wedge design

Q60

Which outcome measure is considered the gold standard for evaluating aerobic capacity in patients during phase II cardiac rehabilitation after surgery?

A

6-minute walk test (6MWT)

B

Peak VO2 measured by cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET)

C

Timed Up and Go (TUG) test

D

Sit-to-stand 30-second test

Q61

In a patient who has recently suffered a myocardial infarction, which airway-clearance maneuver should be avoided because it may raise intrathoracic pressure?

A

Gentle percussion

B

Positive expiratory pressure device

C

Chest wall vibration

D

Forced expiratory technique (FET)

Q62

Which level of complete cervical spinal cord injury typically allows independent breathing but results in loss of all functional hand movements?

A

C3

B

C4

C

C5

D

C6

Q63

A laser device outputs 50 mW continuous wave. According to IEC standards, it is classified as:

A

Class 1

B

Class 3b

C

Class 4

D

Class 2

Q64

A therapist is applying TENS to a patient with a history of epilepsy. Which of the following placement precautions is most critical?

A

Avoid placement over the carotid sinus

B

Avoid placement over the lower extremities

C

Avoid placement over the neck and head

D

Avoid placement over the abdomen

Q65

Preoperative strengthening (prehabilitation) for patients scheduled for total knee arthroplasty has been shown to:

A

Decrease length of postoperative hospital stay

B

Increase postoperative pain levels

C

Delay wound healing

D

Have no measurable impact on postoperative outcomes

Q66

In a patient with a restrictive lung pattern, which breathing exercise is most specifically used to improve the mobility of the rib cage and increase the volume of the upper lobes?

A

Abdominal breathing

B

Thoracic expansion exercises

C

Pursed-lip breathing

D

Glossopharyngeal breathing

Q67

A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease reports difficulty initiating arm swing during walking. Which therapeutic cueing strategy is most likely to improve arm swing amplitude?

A

Visual cue of floor markings

B

Auditory metronome pacing

C

Tactile vibration applied to the forearm

D

Kinesthetic cue using a weighted cane

Q68

Which PNF stretching technique involves a brief isometric contraction of the target muscle followed by a passive stretch of the same muscle?

A

Hold-relax

B

Contract-relax

C

Hold-relax-agonist-contract

D

Reciprocal inhibition

Q69

A 3-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy demonstrates increased knee flexion during stance phase of gait. Which orthotic intervention is most appropriate to improve knee extension in this scenario?

A

Solid ankle-foot orthosis with plantarflexion stop

B

Posterior leaf spring AFO

C

Knee ankle-foot orthosis with extension assist

D

Hip abduction orthosis

Q70

Which educational strategy has shown the highest effectiveness in improving inhaler technique adherence among COPD patients?

A

Demonstration followed by teach-back verification

B

Distribution of printed leaflets only

C

Video presentation without patient interaction

D

Monthly group lecture sessions

Q71

When measuring wrist flexion with a goniometer, which proximal reference line should be used?

A

Extensor carpi radialis brevis

B

Flexor carpi radialis

C

Radius shaft

D

Ulna shaft

Q72

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient exhibiting 'Complex Regional Pain Syndrome' (CRPS) following a distal radius fracture?

A

Aggressive joint mobilization and stretching

B

High-intensity resisted strengthening

C

Graded motor imagery and gentle desensitization

D

Complete immobilization to reduce inflammation

Q73

Which of the following describes the 'Accommodation' phenomenon in electrical stimulation?

A

The increase in muscle strength over several weeks of treatment

B

The skin's ability to conduct current more efficiently over time

C

The nerve's tendency to stop responding to a constant stimulus over time

D

The patient's psychological adaptation to the sensation of current

Q74

In the clinical evaluation of lumbar disc herniation, which imaging sequence provides the greatest sensitivity for detecting annular fissures and nerve root compression?

A

Axial proton density MRI with contrast enhancement

B

Coronal T2-weighted MRI with short tau pulse sequence

C

Sagittal T1-weighted with post-contrast diffusion imaging

D

Posterior oblique T1 with STIR sequence

Q75

According to Brunnstrom's stages of stroke recovery, which stage is marked by the emergence of anti-gravity muscle activity in the affected limb?

A

Stage 1 – Flaccidity

B

Stage 2 – Appearance of basic synergies

C

Stage 3 – Appearance of anti-gravity movements

D

Stage 5 – Return to normal movement patterns

Q76

A 48-year-old patient with knee osteoarthritis is undergoing supervised aquatic therapy. Which physiological principle most explains the analgesic effect observed during water-based exercise?

A

Increased joint temperature leading to vasodilation

B

Hydrostatic pressure reducing edema and stimulating mechanoreceptors

C

Buoyancy decreasing muscle activation

D

Water resistance causing muscle fatigue

Q77

When selecting a laser device for treating a patient with a deep-seated rotator cuff tendinopathy, which combination of wavelength and power density is most appropriate?

A

660 nm wavelength with 5 mW/cm² power density

B

810 nm wavelength with 50 mW/cm² power density

C

904 nm wavelength with 200 mW/cm² power density

D

405 nm wavelength with 10 mW/cm² power density

Q78

When using a volume-oriented incentive spirometer in a postoperative adult, the target volume should correspond to approximately what fraction of vital capacity?

A

One-third

B

One-half

C

Two-thirds

D

Three-quarters

Q79

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) in the rehabilitation of children with unilateral cerebral palsy?

A

It is primarily used to reduce spasticity in the affected limb

B

It involves restricting the less affected limb to encourage use of the more affected limb

C

It is most effective when applied for less than one hour per week

D

It focuses on whole-body strengthening rather than fine motor skills

Q80

What is the primary objective of passive range of motion in a patient with spastic cerebral palsy?

A

Strengthening agonist muscles

B

Stretching tight muscles and tendons

C

Increasing joint stiffness

D

Enhancing proprioceptive feedback

Q81

Which of the following is the most characteristic finding on a pulmonary function test for a patient with bronchial asthma during an acute attack?

A

Fixed obstructive pattern

B

Reversible obstructive pattern

C

Restrictive pattern with decreased TLC

D

Normal FEV1 with decreased DLCO

Q82

When applying microwave diathermy, the applicator should be positioned at a distance of:

A

2-3 cm

B

5-7 cm

C

10-12 cm

D

15-20 cm

Q83

A patient with a transtibial amputation exhibits a 'vaulting' gait on the contralateral limb during the swing phase of the prosthetic limb. What is the most likely cause?

A

Prosthetic foot is too flexible

B

Prosthetic limb is too long

C

Weakness of the prosthetic side hip flexors

D

Socket is too tight

Q84

During the terminal stance phase, which muscle acts eccentrically to decelerate forward tibial translation?

A

Gastrocnemius

B

Tibialis anterior

C

Soleus

D

Peroneus longus

Q85

Which of the following best describes a pragmatic clinical trial?

A

A trial designed to evaluate the effectiveness of an intervention under routine clinical practice conditions

B

A trial with highly selected participants and strict protocol

C

A trial that only measures surrogate outcomes

D

A trial conducted in a laboratory setting

Q86

For a patient with acute edema in the ankle, which IFT beat frequency range is most commonly used to stimulate the 'muscle pump' effect for fluid drainage?

A

1 to 10 Hz

B

10 to 100 Hz

C

100 to 150 Hz

D

Above 200 Hz

Q87

The energy density (J/cm²) delivered during ultrasound therapy is calculated by multiplying intensity (W/cm²) by:

A

Treatment time in minutes

B

Treatment time in seconds

C

Surface area in cm²

D

Duty cycle percentage

Q88

In the Kaltenborn grading system, which grade is used to provide a sustained stretch that eliminates all slack in the joint capsule?

A

Grade I – small-amplitude mobilization

B

Grade II – progressive stretch

C

Grade III – sustained stretch eliminating capsular slack

D

Grade IV – high-velocity thrust

Q89

Which of the following best describes the human body's defense mechanism against environmental bacteria?

A

Hair in the nose

B

Mucous membranes

C

Osteoblasts

D

Saliva (E) Tears

Q90

In golf, which of the following injuries is NOT common?

A

Back pain

B

Golfers elbow

C

Shoulder pain

D

Shin splints

Q91

For a patient with severe COPD, which breathing exercise is recommended to reduce dynamic hyperinflation?

A

Diaphragmatic breathing

B

Pursed‑lip breathing

C

Deep slow breathing with a 3‑second pause

D

Chest‑expiratory flow‑restriction breathing

Q92

In the context of sports ergonomics, 'equipment fit' for a professional athlete primarily aims to:

A

Maximize the aesthetic appearance of the athlete

B

Optimize the interface between the athlete and the equipment to enhance performance and safety

C

Reduce the cost of the equipment

D

Increase the weight of the equipment for strength training

Q93

In the application of FES for a patient with a stroke to improve the 'reach and grasp' function, which sequence of muscle activation is most physiologically accurate?

A

Finger flexors then wrist extensors

B

Wrist extensors then finger flexors

C

Finger extensors then wrist flexors

D

Wrist flexors then finger extensors

Q94

When treating a patient with MS who has severe spasticity in the lower limbs, which of the following is the most effective positioning for the ankles to prevent equinus deformity?

A

Plantarflexion at 20 degrees

B

Neutral position (90 degrees) with a splint

C

Inversion with internal rotation

D

Passive dorsiflexion to the point of pain

Q95

During a pulmonary rehabilitation program, which parameter derived from a symptom‑limited cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPET) is most reliable for prescribing individualized aerobic training intensity in COPD patients?

A

Ventilatory threshold (VT)

B

Peak tidal volume

C

Resting heart rate

D

Maximum inspiratory pressure

Q96

During monitoring of a CBR initiative, the physiotherapist uses the WHO Disability Assessment Schedule 2.0 (WHO‑DAS 2.0). Which domain of the ICF does this tool primarily assess?

A

Body functions and structures

B

Activity limitation

C

Participation restriction

D

Environmental factors

Q97

In the context of balance training, what does the 'Limit of Stability' (LOS) refer to?

A

The maximum weight a patient can lift

B

The maximum distance a person can lean in any direction without stepping

C

The total range of motion of the ankle joint

D

The time it takes to react to a perturbation

Q98

A patient who has undergone CABG is being taught the 'Huffing' technique. What is the primary advantage of huffing over a forceful cough in this patient?

A

It increases the intrathoracic pressure more than coughing

B

It is more effective at removing deep pleural effusions

C

It is less stressful on the sternal incision and airway

D

It eliminates the need for deep inspiration

Q99

When using the Bobath concept for facilitation of the affected upper limb, which technique is employed to inhibit the abnormal flexor synergy and promote extension?

A

Slow rhythmic stroking

B

Unilateral resisted extension

C

Prolonged stretch of the elbow flexors

D

Weight‑bearing through the hand

Q100

In the MWM (Mobilization with Movement) technique, the 'glide' is applied in which direction relative to the restricted movement?

A

In the same direction as the restricted movement

B

Opposite to the restricted movement

C

Perpendicular to the joint axis only

D

Always in a distraction direction