B.Sc. Medical Laboratory Technology (BMLT) Licensing Exam preparation SET 2

Q1

According to the Beer-Lambert law, if the concentration of a solution is doubled while keeping the path length constant, what happens to the absorbance?

A

It doubles

B

It quadruples

C

It remains the same

D

It halves

Q2

A patient with hemolytic anemia shows a marked increase in serum LDH. Which LDH isoenzyme is most likely responsible for this rise?

A

LDH-1

B

LDH-2

C

LDH-3

D

LDH-5

Q3

During routine quality control of a lipid panel, the mean %CV for triglyceride measurement on an automated analyzer is 1.8 %. According to CLSI guidelines, is this performance acceptable?

A

Yes, because the CV is less than 2 %

B

No, because triglyceride CV should be <1 %

C

Yes, but only if the laboratory's target CV is 2 %

D

No, because CV must be <1.5 % for all lipid tests

Q4

Which of the following is the most appropriate specimen for estimating creatinine clearance?

A

Random spot urine

B

First morning urine

C

24-hour collected urine

D

Mid-stream urine

Q5

In the context of acid-base balance, 'Compensation' refers to:

A

The primary cause of the pH change

B

The movement of ions across the cell membrane

C

The physiological response to return pH toward normal

D

The failure of the kidneys to excrete acid

Q6

Which pre-analytical factor most significantly affects the reliability of troponin measurement?

A

Prolonged tourniquet time

B

Hemolysis

C

Lipemia

D

Icterus

Q7

Which of the following best describes the term "total allowable error" (TAE) in clinical biochemistry?

A

The sum of analytical bias and imprecision that can be tolerated without affecting clinical decisions

B

The maximum concentration an assay can measure

C

The percentage of samples that may be rejected during QC

D

The difference between the highest and lowest reference values

Q8

In a 3-week-old infant, the normal reference range for random blood glucose is:

A

45-80 mg/dL

B

55-100 mg/dL

C

70-120 mg/dL

D

85-130 mg/dL

Q9

A patient receiving hemodialysis has increased oxidative stress. Which trace element acts as a cofactor for glutathione peroxidase?

A

Zinc

B

Selenium

C

Copper

D

Manganese

Q10

In the evaluation of suspected hereditary spherocytosis, which test is most useful for demonstrating red cell membrane instability?

A

Sickledex test

B

Coombs test

C

Acidified serum test

D

Osmotic fragility test

Q11

Pure red cell aplasia (PRCA) is characterised on bone marrow examination by:

A

Absence of erythroid precursors with normal myeloid and megakaryocytic lineages

B

Hypocellular marrow with fatty replacement

C

Hypercellular marrow with erythroid hyperplasia

D

Presence of ring sideroblasts

Q12

In the WHO classification, 'B-ALL with hyperdiploidy' is defined by which modal chromosome number?

A

≥51 chromosomes

B

≥47 chromosomes

C

≥60 chromosomes

D

≥46 chromosomes

Q13

A 60-year-old man with IgG kappa myeloma develops worsening renal failure. Urine immunofixation shows free kappa light chains. The pathogenic mechanism of renal injury is:

A

Amyloid deposition

B

Light-chain cast nephropathy

C

Hypercalcemia-induced nephrocalcinosis

D

Hyperviscosity syndrome

Q14

Which clinical feature distinguishes thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) from typical disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

Normal PT and aPTT in TTP

B

Severe prolongation of PT in TTP

C

Elevated fibrin-related markers in TTP

D

Low fibrinogen in TTP

Q15

Which pre-analytical factor most commonly causes a spurious 'clotted' sample flag in automated haematology?

A

Delayed transport at room temperature

B

Improper mixing with EDTA tube

C

Exposure to extreme cold

D

Patient dehydration

Q16

Which Gram-positive coccus is associated with neonatal sepsis and is identified by CAMP test showing enhanced hemolysis with Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Group B Streptococcus

B

Group A Streptococcus

C

Enterococcus faecalis

D

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Q17

A 45-year-old diabetic patient presents with a chronic ulcer on the foot. Direct KOH mount of the tissue shows broad, aseptate hyphae with right-angle branching. Which organism is the most likely cause?

A

Candida albicans

B

Aspergillus fumigatus

C

Mucor circinelloides

D

Cryptococcus neoformans

Q18

Which of the following is the most sensitive method for detection of herpes simplex virus in clinical specimens?

A

Viral culture

B

Tzanck smear

C

HSV DNA by PCR

D

Serology for HSV IgM

Q19

A traveler returning from the Amazon presents with watery diarrhea. Stool microscopy shows oval, 4-µm cysts with a single nucleus. Which parasite is most likely?

A

Giardia duodenalis

B

Entamoeba histolytica

C

Cryptosporidium parvum

D

Cyclospora cayetanensis

Q20

In a BSL-4 laboratory, which type of personal protective equipment is mandatory for all personnel?

A

Standard surgical mask

B

Double gloving only

C

Positive-pressure, HEPA-filtered suit

D

Laboratory coat

Q21

When handling a specimen suspected of containing the Ebola virus, which of the following is the most critical safety measure?

A

Using a biosafety cabinet class I

B

Wearing double gloves without a gown

C

Processing the specimen in a BSL-4 facility

D

Disinfecting the specimen with 70% ethanol before manipulation

Q22

A 55-year-old male with chronic hepatitis B develops membranous nephropathy. Which serologic marker supports a secondary cause?

A

Positive anti-phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) antibody

B

Low complement C3 level

C

Elevated serum IgG4

D

Presence of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

Q23

During an ELISA, a high background signal is most likely caused by:

A

Inadequate blocking of non-specific sites

B

Excess substrate incubation time

C

Using a high-affinity capture antibody

D

Incubating at 4 °C

Q24

Which of the following is a common application of flow cytometry in clinical immunology?

A

Blood glucose monitoring

B

CD4/CD8 T-cell counting for HIV monitoring

C

Detection of serum albumin

D

Estimation of glomerular filtration rate

Q25

FNAC of a breast lump showing cohesive clusters of bland ductal cells, bipolar bare nuclei, and fibromyxoid stroma is typical of which lesion?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

B

Fibroadenoma

C

Ductal carcinoma in situ

D

Fat necrosis

Q26

In immunohistochemistry (IHC), which of the following is the primary purpose of 'antigen retrieval'?

A

To remove non-specific background staining

B

To break methylene bridges formed during formalin fixation

C

To increase the concentration of the primary antibody

D

To prevent the binding of secondary antibodies

Q27

A malignant tumor is described as 'moderately differentiated'. In the context of grading, this corresponds to:

A

Grade 1

B

Grade 2

C

Grade 3

D

Grade 4

Q28

For a patient who is Rh-null (lacks all Rh antigens), which donor red cell phenotype is required for compatibility?

A

Rh-null donor cells

B

Any Rh-negative cells

C

Only D-negative cells

D

Group O, D-negative cells

Q29

Grafter-versus-Host Disease (GVHD) post-transfusion is primarily caused by:

A

Donor T-lymphocytes attacking recipient tissues

B

Recipient antibodies attacking donor cells

C

Complement activation in the recipient

D

Bacterial endotoxins in the unit

Q30

A diagnostic lab implements a digital PCR (dPCR) assay for absolute quantification of a bacterial pathogen. Which of the following statements about dPCR is correct?

A

dPCR provides absolute quantification without a standard curve by partitioning the reaction into thousands of individual reactions

B

dPCR requires a reference gene for normalization

C

dPCR is less tolerant to PCR inhibitors than qPCR

D

dPCR measures fluorescence in real time during amplification

Q31

In accordance with ISO 15189, which document is essential for ensuring consistent performance of a quantitative real-time PCR assay across different runs?

A

Standard operating procedure for nucleic acid extraction

B

Calibration certificate for the thermal cycler

C

Validation report of the assay performance characteristics

D

Daily maintenance log of the laboratory workstation

Q32

Which of the following actions constitutes a corrective action under ISO 15189?

A

Updating the SOP to include a new step after identifying a recurring error

B

Providing a copy of the accreditation certificate to patients

C

Scheduling routine preventive maintenance for all equipment

D

Archiving old patient records after the retention period

Q33

Which of the following is the most common type of epithelial cell found in normal urine?

A

Renal tubular epithelial cells

B

Transitional epithelial cells

C

Squamous epithelial cells

D

Columnar epithelial cells

Q34

Which of the following would be a 'False Positive' for a reducing substance test but NOT for a glucose-specific enzymatic test?

A

Glucose

B

Galactose

C

Starch

D

Albumin

Q35

In a clinical NGS workflow, which step is primarily responsible for reducing the representation of highly abundant repetitive sequences that could compromise variant calling?

A

Target capture using hybridisation probes

B

Fragment size selection by bead purification

C

PCR duplicate removal during bioinformatics processing

D

Use of a high-fidelity polymerase in library amplification

Q36

Which of the following urinary crystals is most strongly associated with hyperparathyroidism?

A

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

B

Struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate)

C

Calcium phosphate

D

Uric acid

Q37

Which of the following foods contains a peroxidase enzyme that can cause a false-positive guaiac FOBT if not avoided before testing?

A

Broccoli

B

White rice

C

Apple juice

D

Banana

Q38

In a Nested PCR assay, what is the primary purpose of using a second set of primers internal to the first set?

A

To decrease the time required for amplification

B

To increase the sensitivity and specificity of the assay

C

To eliminate the need for a thermal cycler

D

To allow the amplification of multiple targets simultaneously

Q39

A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia. Which molecular abnormality is associated with a favorable prognosis and is used to monitor minimal residual disease?

A

NPM1 mutation

B

FLT3-ITD mutation

C

RUNX1-RUNX1T1 fusion

D

TP53 mutation

Q40

Which of the following best describes the 'lattice hypothesis' for agglutination reactions?

A

Antibodies must be multivalent and antigens must have at least two identical epitopes

B

Antigens must be monovalent and antibodies bivalent

C

Only IgG can form lattices, not IgM

D

Lattice formation requires complement activation

Q41

During marrow evaluation for suspected systemic mastocytosis, which morphological feature is most characteristic?

A

Spindle-shaped mast cells with dense granules

B

Auer rods in blasts

C

Ring sideroblasts

D

Prominent megakaryocytes with abnormal nuclei

Q42

In the enzymatic method for urea determination, which enzyme catalyzes the initial conversion of urea to ammonia?

A

Urease

B

Glutamate dehydrogenase

C

Arginase

D

L-carnitine dehydrogenase

Q43

What is the main purpose of hydrodynamic focusing in flow-cytometric haematology analysers?

A

To align cells in a single file for laser interrogation

B

To lyse red cells before analysis

C

To stain cellular DNA automatically

D

To separate plasma from cells

Q44

When preparing a stool specimen for a reducing substances test using Clinitest, which pre-analytical condition must be avoided?

A

Exposure to ambient air for more than 2 hours

B

Storage at 4 °C for 24 h

C

Adding a drop of 10 % formalin

D

Mixing with saline before testing

Q45

When the reagent-rack temperature exceeds the specified range, which calibration check should be repeated before patient testing resumes?

A

Re-run the reagent lot verification panel

B

Perform a daily internal QC

C

Run a patient sample with known value

D

Check the instrument's clock

Q46

A donor who has a documented history of sickle cell trait is:

A

Permanently deferred

B

Temporarily deferred for 6 months

C

Allowed to donate whole blood

D

Allowed to donate only plasma

Q47

After a laboratory report has been dispatched, a pre-analytical error is discovered that could alter the result. The ethically appropriate action is to:

A

Issue a corrected report and inform the requesting clinician

B

Discard the original report without notice

C

Re-run the test silently and replace the report

D

Notify the patient directly by telephone

Q48

A 60-year-old male with established coronary artery disease has a fasting LDL-C of 90 mg/dl on maximal statin therapy. Which additional test is most useful to assess residual risk?

A

High-sensitivity CRP

B

Lipoprotein(a) concentration

C

ApoA-I level

D

Serum bilirubin

Q49

Which molecular assay is recommended for high-risk HPV genotype 16/18 detection in self-collected cervicovaginal samples?

A

Cobas 4800 HPV test

B

Papanicolaou smear

C

HPV DNA hybrid capture 2

D

VIA

Q50

In a fluorometric assay, which parameter is measured that is not typically obtained in a conventional UV-Vis spectrophotometer?

A

Emission intensity at a longer wavelength than excitation

B

Absorbance at the excitation wavelength

C

Transmittance of the sample

D

Reference wavelength absorbance

Q51

Which vaccine is recommended for travelers from Nepal to endemic regions for protection against Japanese encephalitis?

A

Inactivated JE vaccine

B

Live attenuated JE vaccine

C

Yellow fever vaccine

D

Typhoid Vi polysaccharide vaccine

Q52

Cytological features of 'nuclear molding' and 'ground-glass' chromatin in multinucleated cells are classically seen in which infection on a Pap smear?

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

B

Trichomonas vaginalis

C

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

D

Candida albicans

Q53

Which statement regarding the use of blocking buffer in ELISA is correct?

A

It contains high concentration of NaCl to increase ionic strength

B

It contains non-specific proteins to occupy free binding sites

C

It is used only in sandwich ELISA

D

It eliminates the need for washing steps

Q54

Which of the following conditions leads to a decrease in the synthesis of albumin, thereby serving as a marker for the liver's synthetic function?

A

Acute hepatitis

B

Chronic cirrhosis

C

Biliary obstruction

D

Hemolytic anemia

Q55

The Fuhrman nuclear grade of a renal cell carcinoma is 4. Which prognosis is most likely?

A

Excellent

B

Good

C

Poor

D

Fatal

Q56

In standard precautions, which of the following body fluids is NOT considered potentially infectious regardless of visible blood?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

B

Pleural fluid

C

Sweat

D

Synovial fluid

Q57

An infant with persistent hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia is most likely to have which endocrine disorder?

A

Hypoparathyroidism

B

Hyperparathyroidism

C

Vitamin D deficiency

D

PTH resistance

Q58

Which of the following analytical interferences is most likely to cause a falsely low serum urea nitrogen reading in an enzymatic assay that uses urease?

A

High concentrations of circulating hemoglobin

B

Presence of a competitive inhibitor of urease such as cyanide

C

Elevated serum bilirubin interfering with spectrophotometer readings

D

Hemolysis releasing intracellular ATP

Q59

During evaluation of chronic myelofibrosis, which histologic feature is most characteristic of the marrow?

A

Diffuse lymphocytic infiltrate

B

Marked reticulin fibrosis with osteosclerosis

C

Abundant eosinophilic granules

D

Hypercellularity with myeloid predominance

Q60

Which of the following tests is used to differentiate Candida albicans from other Candida species by observing the production of chlamydospores?

A

Germ tube test

B

Cornmeal agar culture

C

CHROMagar

D

TSI agar

Q61

In suspected HIV-1/HIV-2 differentiation where the screening test is reactive but the type-specific differentiation assay gives an indeterminate result, which test resolves the discordance?

A

CD4 lymphocyte count

B

HIV-1 RNA PCR

C

Western blot

D

Beta-2 microglobulin

Q62

A patient with chronic liver disease develops coagulopathy. Vitamin K is supplemented but PT remains prolonged because hepatic synthesis is impaired. Which clotting factor's plasma level reflects this impaired hepatic synthetic function?

A

Factor V (labile factor)

B

Factor VII

C

Factor IX

D

Protein C

Q63

An automated lipid analyzer shows %CV for HDL-C measurement of 4.2 %. According to CLSI EP5-A3, is this result acceptable?

A

Yes, because <5 % is acceptable

B

Yes, because <10 % is acceptable

C

No, because >3 % is unacceptable

D

No, because >5 % is unacceptable

Q64

A Rh-D negative pregnant woman has an indirect Coombs test titer of 1:64 at 28 weeks. Which laboratory finding best predicts severe fetal hemolytic disease?

A

Maternal titer ≥1:32

B

Presence of IgM anti-D antibodies

C

Positive Kleihauer-Betke test

D

Fetal ultrasound showing cardiomegaly

Q65

The target haematocrit range for a safe whole blood donation in an average adult donor is approximately:

A

35–40%

B

40–45%

C

45–50%

D

Above 50%

Q66

A laboratory technologist is asked by a vendor to sign a contract that awards the vendor exclusive rights to supply reagents in exchange for a consulting fee. According to NHPC ethical guidelines, this arrangement:

A

Is acceptable as long as the technologist discloses it

B

Represents a conflict of interest and must be avoided

C

Is permissible if it lowers reagent costs

D

Is a matter of personal freedom

Q67

In selective IgA deficiency, which clinical feature is most common?

A

Recurrent anaphylactic reactions to blood transfusion

B

Severe combined immunodeficiency

C

Recurrent sinopulmonary infections

D

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Q68

For confirmation of a previously identified pathogenic variant in a clinical laboratory, which method provides the highest specificity?

A

Sanger sequencing with bidirectional reads

B

Single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) array

C

Microsatellite analysis

D

Northern blotting

Q69

A patient on warfarin therapy will show the earliest prolongation of which coagulation test?

A

PT/INR

B

aPTT

C

Thrombin time

D

Fibrinogen level

Q70

Which vaccine in the Nepal National Immunisation Schedule is administered to children at 16-24 months of age as a booster dose?

A

Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine

B

Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine

C

DTP booster

D

BCG vaccine

Q71

When a centrifuge in a BSL-2 laboratory develops a leak or breakage with aerosol generation, what is the FIRST action to be taken by the laboratory personnel?

A

Immediately open the lid to inspect contents

B

Stop the centrifuge, wait 30 minutes for aerosols to settle, then open inside a BSC

C

Spray disinfectant and continue centrifugation

D

Transfer the rotor to another centrifuge

Q72

Which class of biosafety cabinet (BSC) provides both product and personnel protection and is suitable for work with Risk Group 3 biological agents in a BSL-3 laboratory?

A

Class I

B

Class II Type A2

C

Class III

D

Laminar flow hood only

Q73

Which of the following liver enzymes is located primarily in the cytosol of hepatocytes and is considered the most liver-specific transaminase?

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

B

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

C

Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)

D

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Q74

Which enzyme deficiency in the glycolytic pathway of mature erythrocytes is most commonly associated with chronic non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia?

A

Pyruvate kinase

B

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

C

Hexokinase

D

Aldolase

Q75

What is the most frequent cytogenetic abnormality observed in adult B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

t(9;22)(q34;q11) BCR-ABL1

B

t(12;21)(p13;q22) ETV6-RUNX1

C

Hyperdiploidy (≥51 chromosomes)

D

MLL (KMT2A) rearrangement

Q76

Which analyte is least reliable as an isolated marker for monitoring dialysis adequacy in end-stage renal disease?

A

Serum creatinine

B

Serum urea (BUN)

C

Kt/V derived from urea kinetics

D

Urea reduction ratio

Q77

Which CSF pattern is characteristic of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

Elevated protein with normal cell count (albumin-cytologic dissociation)

B

Low CSF glucose concentration

C

Neutrophilic pleocytosis >100 cells/µL

D

Markedly increased CSF lactate

Q78

A lab uses dilute Russell viper venom time (dRVVT) to screen for lupus anticoagulant. In which isolated factor deficiency would the dRVVT also be markedly prolonged?

A

Factor X deficiency

B

Factor VII deficiency

C

Factor V deficiency

D

Factor VIII deficiency

Q79

If the Mueller-Hinton agar depth is inadvertently prepared at 5 mm instead of the recommended 4 mm, what is the most likely effect on the disk diffusion zone diameters?

A

Zones will be smaller, potentially indicating false resistance

B

Zones will be larger, potentially indicating false susceptibility

C

There will be no significant effect on zone size

D

Zones will become irregular and unreadable

Q80

The (1→3)-β-D-glucan assay may give a false-negative result for infection with which of the following fungi?

A

Candida albicans

B

Aspergillus fumigatus

C

Cryptococcus neoformans

D

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Q81

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which molecular mimicry leads to autoimmunity?

A

Cross-reactive antibodies generated against microbial antigens bind to self-tissues

B

Upregulation of regulatory T cells that suppress self-reactive clones

C

Deletion of autoreactive B cells in the bone marrow

D

Enhanced clearance of immune complexes by complement

Q82

Which of the following Gram-negative bacilli is a strong lactose fermenter and is typically associated with the production of a thick, mucoid colony due to a prominent capsule?

A

Salmonella Typhi

B

Shigella sonnei

C

Klebsiella pneumoniae

D

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Q83

According to CLSI EP5-A3, how many distinct control levels should be run on each batch for a high-throughput chemistry analyzer to adequately monitor assay performance?

A

One control level

B

Two control levels (low and high)

C

Three control levels (low, medium, high)

D

Four control levels

Q84

Which biosafety level (BSL) is required for routine culture of clinical specimens suspected to contain herpes simplex virus?

A

BSL-1

B

BSL-2

C

BSL-3

D

BSL-4

Q85

A 48-year-old woman with metastatic colorectal cancer is being considered for anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody therapy. Which somatic mutation in KRAS predicts lack of response?

A

KRAS exon 4 G13R

B

KRAS exon 2 G12V

C

BRAF V600E

D

NRAS exon 3 Q61K

Q86

A fasting plasma glucose of 132 mg/dL on two separate occasions meets the diagnostic criteria for:

A

Impaired fasting glucose

B

Diabetes mellitus

C

Hypoglycemia

D

Normal

Q87

Gram-positive cocci in clusters indicate:

A

Streptococcus

B

Staphylococcus

C

Neisseria

D

Vibrio

Q88

Which cardiac biomarker is least influenced by skeletal muscle injury and therefore preferred when concurrent rhabdomyolysis is suspected?

A

Cardiac troponin I

B

Cardiac troponin T

C

CK‑MB

D

Myoglobin

Q89

During a major cross‑match, the donor red cells are mixed with the recipient’s plasma and incubated at 37 °C for 15 minutes. Which reaction, if observed, indicates the presence of clinically significant antibodies?

A

Immediate agglutination observed within 2 minutes

B

No agglutination but a positive antiglobulin test after washing

C

Clumping of cells that disappears on addition of saline

D

Rouleaux formation without true agglutination

Q90

Which statement best describes the purpose of measuring a trough level for vancomycin?

A

To assess the peak concentration responsible for nephrotoxicity

B

To ensure adequate time‑dependent bacterial killing

C

To evaluate renal excretion rate

D

To predict allergic reactions

Q91

Which of the following is the most specific test to differentiate immune‑mediated hemolysis from non‑immune causes?

A

Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test

B

Serum ferritin measurement

C

Reticulocyte count

D

Peripheral blood smear morphology

Q92

Which of the following is the primary intracellular buffer system that helps maintain intracellular pH in human cells?

A

hemoglobin

B

phosphate

C

albumin

D

bicarbonate

Q93

Which of the following describes the 'Zero-Order' phase of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

A

The reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentration

B

The reaction rate is independent of the substrate concentration

C

The enzyme is in excess compared to the substrate

D

The reaction rate decreases as substrate concentration increases

Q94

When a tissue containing abundant water is frozen without pre‑dehydration, which artifact is most likely to appear on the slide?

A

Ice crystal artifact

B

Formalin pigment

C

Thermal denaturation

D

Giemsa staining

Q95

If a sample's transmittance is decreased from 100% to 10%, what is the resulting change in absorbance?

A

Absorbance increases from 0 to 0.9

B

Absorbance increases from 0 to 1.0

C

Absorbance decreases from 1.0 to 0

D

Absorbance remains constant

Q96

In the Ziehl‑Neelsen staining procedure, which step removes the primary stain from non‑acid‑fast bacteria?

A

Application of carbol fuchsin

B

Heating the slide during primary staining

C

Decolorization with 20% sulfuric acid (acid‑alcohol)

D

Counterstaining with methylene blue

Q97

Which of the following is considered a 'Clinical Stage' (cStage) rather than a 'Pathological Stage' (pStage)?

A

Stage determined by surgical resection and histology

B

Stage determined by physical exam and imaging

C

Stage determined by lymph node dissection

D

Stage determined by post-operative biopsy

Q98

The mean Ct value of the positive control has increased by 1.5 cycles over three consecutive runs. What is the most appropriate initial action?

A

Reject all patient results and repeat the assay immediately

B

Investigate possible reagent degradation or thermal cycler performance

C

Adjust the assay's Ct cut‑off to accommodate the drift

D

Ignore the change as it is within acceptable limits

Q99

Which immunohistochemical marker is most characteristic for the diagnosis of Seminoma or Dysgerminoma?

A

PLAP

B

AFP

C

beta-HCG

D

Calcitonin

Q100

What is the effect of excessive moisture (condensation) on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton agar plate during a disk diffusion test?

A

It increases the zone of inhibition

B

It causes the colonies to merge, making zone measurement difficult

C

It prevents the antibiotic from diffusing into the agar

D

It inhibits the growth of the test organism