BSc Nursing Licensure Exam preparation SET 2

Q1

What is the most crucial action a nurse must take immediately after a bronchoscopy to safeguard patient safety?

A

Administer oxygen

B

Check the patient's temperature

C

Start intravenous fluids

D

Evaluate the patient's gag reflex.

Q2

A patient with a cardiac condition requires a DASH diet. What is the primary focus of this dietary approach?

A

Diabetic diet

B

High-protein diet

C

Renal diet

D

Cardiac diet-DASH

Q3

A patient diagnosed with hydrocephaly requires which intervention to prevent further complications?

A

Encouraging frequent physical activity.

B

Administering high-calorie diet.

C

Promoting independent ambulation.

D

Regular monitoring of intracranial pressure.

Q4

A patient with paranoid schizophrenia expresses a belief that their neighbor is trying to poison them. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

A

Tell the patient that their belief is irrational and they are being overly sensitive.

B

Contact the patient's family to confirm the patient's delusion.

C

Immediately administer antipsychotic medication as prescribed.

D

Validate the patient's feelings while assessing the reality of the threat.

Q5

A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension reports a headache and dizziness. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial action for the nurse?

A

Administer an over-the-counter pain reliever.

B

Advise the patient to increase their fluid intake.

C

Instruct the patient to immediately lie down.

D

Measure the patient's blood pressure and pulse.

Q6

A nurse is drafting a letter of resignation. Which element is MOST crucial for professional correspondence?

A

An overly emotional expression of dissatisfaction.

B

A request for a personal favor from colleagues.

C

A polite and formal tone.

D

A detailed account of all grievances during employment.

Q7

A patient is preparing for an ERCP. What is the primary purpose of this procedure?

A

To visualize and treat abnormalities within the bile ducts and pancreatic duct.

B

To assess liver function through blood samples.

C

To measure the size of the gallbladder.

D

To remove stones from the small intestine.

Q8

Which of the following is the *best* way to prevent falls in an elderly patient?

A

Restricting the patient's mobility.

B

Encouraging the patient to perform strenuous activities.

C

Regular environmental assessments and patient education.

D

Administering medications to improve alertness.

Q9

Which of the following is a common consequence of prolonged hyperpituitarism?

A

Hypertension.

B

Osteoporosis.

C

Anemia.

D

Peripheral vascular disease.

Q10

A patient is being discharged with instructions to monitor their blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the patient to:

A

Only check their blood glucose levels when they feel symptoms of hypoglycemia.

B

Ignore their blood glucose levels if they are within the normal range.

C

Share their blood glucose readings with other family members.

D

Record their blood glucose levels and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider.

Q11

A patient with a nasogastric tube develops abdominal distention. The nurse should suspect:

A

Decreased intestinal absorption.

B

Tube obstruction.

C

Hypotension.

D

Increased gastric motility.

Q12

What does 'developmental tasks' refer to in the context of younger children?

A

The child's preferred bedtime routine.

B

The child's genetic predispositions.

C

Specific skills and abilities children acquire during different stages of development.

D

The family's socioeconomic status.

Q13

Which of the following is a key characteristic of viruses?

A

They are infectious agents.

B

They are capable of self-replication independently.

C

They contain organelles similar to cells.

D

They are always larger than bacteria.

Q14

A patient presents with symptoms of heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A

Peptic ulcer

B

Hiatus hernia

C

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

D

Esophageal stricture

Q15

A pregnant woman's history reveals a previous diagnosis of gestational diabetes. What is the nurse's first step in managing this patient?

A

Instruct the patient to follow a low-carbohydrate diet.

B

Administer insulin without physician order.

C

Schedule a routine prenatal appointment.

D

Refer to the obstetrician for further evaluation and management.

Q16

A baby diagnosed with Down Syndrome is at increased risk for which of the following congenital anomalies?

A

Pyloric Stenosis

B

Esophageal Atresia

C

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

D

Hypotonia

Q17

The normal pressure within the vitreous humor of the eye is maintained at approximately:

A

15 - 20 mm Hg.

B

50 - 60 mm Hg.

C

30 - 40 mm Hg.

D

25 - 35 mm Hg.

Q18

What is the role of a nurse in a group therapy setting?

A

To facilitate the therapeutic process and ensure patient safety.

B

To solely provide individual counseling.

C

To prescribe medication.

D

To diagnose patients individually.

Q19

What is the typical daily fluid requirement for maintaining normal hydration?

A

3000 ml

B

2000 ml

C

1500 ml

D

1200 ml

Q20

Which of the following is a significant developmental task for school-age children?

A

Developing a sense of competence.

B

Maintaining a childlike perspective.

C

Prioritizing solely family needs.

D

Eliminating all emotional expression.

Q21

A 6-year-old child is experiencing pain after a recent injury. Which pain assessment tool is MOST appropriate for this age group?

A

Braden Pain Scale

B

Numerical Rating Scale

C

McGill Pain Scale

D

Faces Pain Scale

Q22

A patient with a history of osteoporosis complains of pain in the thoracic spine. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to reduce pain and prevent further injury?

A

Instruct the Patient to Flex Their Spine

B

Encourage Spinal Rotation

C

Administer Muscle Relaxants

D

Maintain Spinal Alignment

Q23

What is the standard protocol for reporting a medication error?

A

Discuss the error with colleagues in private.

B

Document the error in the patient's chart without investigation.

C

Immediately report the error to the appropriate personnel (e.g., nurse supervisor, pharmacist).

D

Discretely correct the error without notifying anyone.

Q24

A patient with dysphagia is prescribed a nasogastric tube (Ryle's tube) for nutritional support. What is the primary indication for this intervention?

A

Presence of nausea and vomiting

B

Patient preference for enteral feeding

C

Diagnosis of pneumonia

D

Inability to swallow safely

Q25

A patient requests a top sheet pulled up to their shoulders for warmth. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

A

Provide the patient with a top sheet and assistance to adjust it to their desired level of warmth.

B

Remove the top sheet entirely as it is unnecessary.

C

Instruct the patient to fold the top sheet over and tuck it in tightly.

D

Apply a cooling blanket to the patient's body.

Q26

A patient's wound is exhibiting signs of inflammation. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

A

Increase the amount of antiseptic solution applied to the wound.

B

Notify the physician and assess the patient's vital signs.

C

Apply a cold compress to the wound.

D

Increase the patient's fluid intake.

Q27

What is the MOST critical factor the circulating nurse must ensure before the surgeon begins making an incision?

A

The operating room is adequately lit.

B

The patient has signed the informed consent form.

C

The surgical instruments are readily available.

D

The anesthesia provider is present in the room.

Q28

A newborn is diagnosed with Trachea-Esophageal Atresia. What is the primary goal of initial nursing care?

A

Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress.

B

Administering corticosteroids.

C

Establishment of a feeding tube.

D

Performing a gastric lavage.

Q29

What is the defining characteristic of Preeclampsia?

A

Decreased blood pressure.

B

Hypertension and proteinuria

C

Increased appetite and nausea.

D

Fever and edema.

Q30

A patient presents with acute lower back pain radiating down the left leg. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial assessment?

A

Applying a heat pack to the affected area.

B

Administering immediate pain medication without assessment.

C

Assessment of neurological function, including reflexes and sensation.

D

Instructing the patient to avoid any movement.

Q31

A patient presents with severe pain in the right lower back, radiating down the leg. The nurse's initial assessment reveals a positive straight leg raise test. Which assessment finding should the nurse MOST closely monitor?

A

Reflexes

B

Temperature

C

Blood Pressure

D

Respiratory Rate

Q32

The nurse is explaining the importance of the perineum. Which statement is correct?

A

It is the area surrounding the uterus

B

It is the area between the vaginal opening and the anus

C

It is the area containing the ovaries

D

It is the area containing the fallopian tubes

Q33

What is the primary reason for utilizing restraints?

A

To facilitate patient mobility.

B

To improve patient comfort.

C

To provide a calming environment.

D

To prevent falls.

Q34

Which of the following is a primary nursing responsibility when caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube?

A

Measure the patient's blood pressure.

B

Change the patient's bed linens daily.

C

Monitor the patient for signs of aspiration.

D

Administer intravenous fluids.

Q35

A 9-year-old child is experiencing pain after surgery. What is the MOST important aspect of providing comfort?

A

Focusing solely on physical comfort measures.

B

Strictly adhering to the prescribed pain medication schedule.

C

Administering pain medication immediately.

D

Providing reassurance and emotional support.

Q36

What is the primary purpose of a government health services organogram?

A

To define roles and responsibilities within the healthcare system.

B

To solely focus on preventative medicine programs.

C

To eliminate all private sector involvement in healthcare delivery.

D

To guarantee equal access to healthcare for all citizens.

Q37

What is the primary purpose of screening for reproductive neoplasm?

A

Early detection of cancerous growths.

B

Assessment of reproductive function.

C

Treatment of chronic pelvic pain.

D

Management of hormonal imbalances.

Q38

A patient is receiving a bathroom bath. What is the MOST important consideration regarding water temperature?

A

Warm - approximately 37°C (98.6°F).

B

Room temperature - to avoid burns.

C

Hot - to disinfect the skin.

D

Cold - to reduce inflammation.

Q39

A patient reports experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which intervention is MOST appropriate as a first step?

A

Offer Clear Liquids

B

Administer Anti-Emetic Medication Immediately

C

Elevate the Head of the Bed

D

Assess the Patient's History

Q40

A 3-year-old child is refusing to eat their vegetables. The nurse should:

A

Threatening to withhold other foods if they don't eat the vegetables.

B

Forcing the child to eat the vegetables.

C

Ignoring the child's refusal to eat the vegetables.

D

Offering a small portion of the vegetable with a familiar food.

Q41

During the preparation phase, a nurse identifies a potential risk to the patient. The circulating nurse should:

A

Ignore the risk unless it directly impacts the surgical procedure.

B

Document the observation in the patient's chart.

C

Discuss the risk with another nurse privately.

D

Immediately inform the surgeon and relevant team members.

Q42

What is the key goal of health teaching for a pregnant woman regarding nutrition?

A

To provide detailed information on specific food restrictions.

B

To focus solely on consuming a vegetarian diet.

C

To strictly limit calorie intake to prevent excessive weight gain.

D

To ensure adequate intake of essential nutrients for maternal and fetal health.

Q43

A newborn with a suspected congenital heart defect requires immediate echocardiography. What is the primary purpose of this diagnostic test?

A

To assess the infant's respiratory rate.

B

To visualize the heart chambers and valves.

C

To determine the infant's gestational age.

D

To measure the infant's blood pressure.

Q44

A woman is experiencing prolonged labor. What is the FIRST step in managing this situation?

A

Initiate intravenous antibiotics

B

Order a fetal ultrasound

C

Assess fetal station

D

Administer pain medication

Q45

What is the primary purpose of the DOTS strategy?

A

tuberculosis management

B

HIV/AIDS treatment

C

malaria control

D

dengue fever prevention

Q46

A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome presents with fluctuating muscle weakness. Which assessment finding would *most* indicate a worsening of the condition?

A

Decreased respiratory effort.

B

Stable blood pressure.

C

Increased appetite.

D

Normal bowel sounds.

Q47

What is cerumen?

A

A bacterial infection of the ear.

B

Impacted wax or earwax.

C

A type of hearing aid.

D

A neurological disorder affecting hearing.

Q48

A patient presents to the emergency department with a temperature of 38.5°C, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and reports feeling unwell. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial nursing action?

A

Assess the patient's level of consciousness and respiratory effort.

B

Notify the physician without further assessment.

C

Administer acetaminophen immediately.

D

Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids.

Q49

What is the primary purpose of lithium therapy in treating psychiatric disorders?

A

To provide immediate relief from anxiety.

B

To increase the patient's energy levels.

C

To stabilize mood and reduce the frequency of manic episodes.

D

To completely eliminate all symptoms of depression.

Q50

Which developmental stage is characterized by a focus on maintaining health and well-being during middle adulthood?

A

Middle-aged adult

B

Young adult

C

Infant

D

Older adult

Q51

A pregnant woman in late pregnancy complains of severe heartburn. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

A

Administer antacids containing magnesium hydroxide.

B

Recommend elevating the head of her bed.

C

Advise her to sit upright after eating.

D

Instruct her to avoid all acidic foods.

Q52

A patient with a spinal cord injury is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which intervention is MOST important to prevent this complication?

A

Encouraging the patient to remain in one position for extended periods

B

Elevating the affected limbs

C

Administering topical corticosteroids

D

Regular skin assessments and repositioning

Q53

What is the primary difference between sterilization and disinfection?

A

Disinfection only targets viruses.

B

Disinfection is more effective than sterilization.

C

Sterilization completely kills microorganisms; disinfection reduces their number.

D

Both terms refer to the same process.

Q54

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the nurse in the early stages of disaster management?

A

Developing Long-Term Recovery Plans

B

Providing Immediate Care and Triage

C

Managing Facility Resources

D

Conducting Detailed Forensic Investigations

Q55

What action is most appropriate when a patient is experiencing difficulty breathing and is lying flat?

A

Administer a bronchodilator

B

Encourage the patient to cough forcefully

C

Maintain the patient in a supine position

D

Elevate the head of the bed

Q56

A patient reports difficulty swallowing medication. The nurse should *first*:

A

Consult with the physician regarding alternative medication formulations.

B

Instruct the patient to take the medication with a full glass of water.

C

Administer the medication crushed with water.

D

Assess the patient's ability to swallow.

Q57

What is the primary goal of democratic leadership in a nursing unit?

A

Maximizing individual productivity

B

Prioritizing hierarchical structure

C

Promoting collaboration

D

Maintaining strict control

Q58

A patient receiving insulin therapy reports a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL after administering their usual dose. The next scheduled dose is in 2 hours. What is the MOST appropriate nursing action?

A

Assess the patient's symptoms and administer a supplemental dose of insulin as ordered.

B

Instruct the patient to continue with their regular schedule.

C

Document the elevated blood glucose and monitor only.

D

Administer a larger dose of insulin to correct the elevated blood glucose.

Q59

Which of the following congenital anomalies is characterized by a persistent ductus arteriosus?

A

Persistent Ductus Arteriosus

B

Coarctation of the Aorta

C

Transposition of the Great Arteries

D

Tetralogy of Fallot

Q60

What is the generally accepted normal daily water intake to maintain hydration and bodily functions?

A

1500 ml

B

2000 ml

C

3000 ml

D

1000 ml

Q61

What is the primary reason for using restraints (physical and chemical) when appropriate?

A

To manage patient behavior

B

To reduce nurse workload

C

To increase patient comfort

D

To prevent patient movement

Q62

A patient undergoing surgical treatment reports a new onset of pain. What is the *first* nursing action?

A

Immediately administer a strong opioid analgesic.

B

Administer antacids for potential nausea.

C

Notify the physician without further assessment.

D

Assess the pain using a standardized pain scale.

Q63

A newborn infant is presenting with a murmur heard at the left upper sternal border. Which of the following is the MOST likely congenital cardiac anomaly?

A

Aortic Stenosis

B

Transposition of the Great Arteries

C

Coarctation of the Aorta

D

Tetralogy of Fallot

Q64

What is the primary purpose of positioning a patient in the low Fowler's position during NG feeding?

A

Increase gastric volume

B

Facilitate patient comfort

C

Enhance tube placement

D

Minimize aspiration risk

Q65

What is the immediate action a nurse should take when a patient reports a sudden onset of severe chest pain?

A

Encourage the Patient to Rest

B

Administer Aspirin

C

Notify the Physician Immediately

D

Assess the Patient's Allergies

Q66

A patient's temperature is 40.0°C (104.0°F). What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

A

Administer a cold bath.

B

Monitor the patient's vital signs every 15 minutes.

C

Encourage the patient to drink fluids.

D

Notify the physician immediately.

Q67

What is the primary goal of pre-operative care for a patient undergoing eye surgery?

A

Optimize the patient's vision.

B

Administer pain medication.

C

Reduce anxiety.

D

Prevent infection.

Q68

In a situation requiring immediate action, such as a patient experiencing a sudden change in vital signs, which leadership style is most effective?

A

Transformational leadership

B

Autocratic leadership

C

Laissez-faire leadership

D

Participative leadership

Q69

A patient's bed is unmade. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?

A

Delegate the task to another staff member immediately.

B

Ignore the unmade bed and focus on other patient care needs.

C

Discuss the patient's preferences for bed making with the patient.

D

Make the bed according to established standards.

Q70

During fetal development, the sutures of the skull primarily serve to:

A

Permanently fix the skull into a rigid position.

B

Provide structural support only after birth.

C

Increase the overall size of the fetal head.

D

Allow for flexibility and accommodation during birth.

Q71

The first milk produced after childbirth is known as:

A

Colostrum

B

Formula Milk

C

Breast milk

D

Human Milk

Q72

A family member asks the nurse to tell them stories about the deceased patient. The nurse should:

A

Offer to research the patient's life history independently.

B

Share appropriate stories that honor the patient's life.

C

Suggest the family consult with a therapist for guidance.

D

Immediately decline, as sharing personal stories is inappropriate.

Q73

A woman in active labor is exhibiting a sustained increase in fetal heart rate of 2 bpm over 10 minutes. According to best practice, what is the *initial* most appropriate action?

A

Assess maternal vital signs and uterine contractions.

B

Immediately administer intravenous fluids.

C

Initiate tocolytics.

D

Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Q74

A nurse is preparing a figure-of-eight bandage. What is the correct method for securing it?

A

Wrapping it tightly around the limb.

B

Crossing the bandage over the wound.

C

Using only one hand to apply the bandage.

D

Applying it parallel to the wound.

Q75

When restraining a 10-year-old child who is experiencing a behavioral crisis, the nurse should prioritize which action?

A

Employ verbal de-escalation techniques and a calm, reassuring approach.

B

Increase the child's environmental stimuli (e.g., bright lights, loud music).

C

Immediately apply physical restraints to prevent harm to the child or others.

D

Administer a sedative medication without consulting with a physician.

Q76

A nurse observes a 7-year-old child exhibiting signs of agitation and restlessness. Which intervention demonstrates the BEST application of professional judgment in this situation?

A

Implementing a strict, restrictive environment to reduce stimulation.

B

Ignoring the child's behavior and continuing with routine care.

C

Immediately administering a sedative medication based on routine protocols.

D

Attempting to identify the underlying cause of the agitation and providing a calming environment.

Q77

Which dietary adjustment is most critical for a patient newly diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Implementing a consistent carbohydrate counting strategy.

B

Consuming large, infrequent meals to stabilize blood glucose.

C

Ignoring insulin administration to avoid hypoglycemia.

D

Following a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet.

Q78

Which of the following is the MOST important nursing intervention for a patient experiencing trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Administer analgesic medications as prescribed, focusing on short-acting options.

B

Encourage the patient to avoid cold foods and drinks.

C

Provide the patient with a warm bath to relax facial muscles.

D

Instruct the patient to perform gentle facial massage.

Q79

Which of the following best describes the goal of developmental psychology?

A

To treat mental illnesses.

B

To study social interactions.

C

To understand how individuals change across the lifespan.

D

To assess personality traits.

Q80

A patient expresses dissatisfaction with the care they've received. According to organizational communication principles, the nurse's MOST appropriate initial response should be:

A

To actively listen to the patient's concerns and acknowledge their feelings.

B

To offer a detailed explanation of the care plan and why it was implemented.

C

To immediately defend the care provided by the healthcare team.

D

To apologize regardless of whether the care was appropriate.

Q81

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which oxygen delivery system is MOST appropriate for immediate administration while assessing the patient's needs?

A

Oxygen tent

B

Nasal cannula

C

Simple face mask

D

Venturi mask

Q82

A nurse is documenting a newborn's assessment. Which of the following findings would indicate the need for further investigation regarding the newborn's neurological status?

A

Skin color

B

Body temperature

C

Jitteriness

D

Heart rate

Q83

A patient in the CCU is exhibiting signs of hypotension despite receiving intravenous fluids. The nurse's next step should be to:

A

Increase the rate of fluid administration without reassessment.

B

Decrease the patient's blood pressure with medications.

C

Immediately notify the attending physician without further intervention.

D

Assess for signs of bleeding and administer vasopressors.

Q84

What is the primary ethical consideration when obtaining informed consent from research participants?

A

Guaranteeing the participant's financial compensation.

B

Ensuring the participant understands the study's purpose, risks, and benefits.

C

Obtaining consent from the participant's legal guardian.

D

Minimizing the participant's discomfort during the study.

Q85

When managing a patient with Enteric fever, the nurse recognizes that the key nursing intervention is to:

A

Administer intravenous fluids to correct dehydration.

B

Maintain strict hygiene to prevent the spread of the bacteria.

C

Encourage the patient to consume a diet rich in probiotics.

D

Administer antipyretics to reduce fever.

Q86

During a home visit to a family experiencing chronic pain, the nurse's primary purpose in the initial contact should be:

A

To direct the family to self-manage the pain with over-the-counter remedies.

B

To immediately administer pain medication.

C

To schedule a follow-up appointment without a thorough initial assessment.

D

To assess the family's understanding of the pain and identify potential contributing factors.

Q87

A family conference is primarily utilized for which of the following?

A

Providing individual counseling to each family member.

B

Facilitating communication and collaborative problem-solving within the family.

C

Administering medication directly to the family members.

D

Documenting the family's medical history in detail.

Q88

Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for a patient experiencing pain secondary to osteoarthritis?

A

Implementing non-pharmacological pain management techniques, such as heat or cold therapy.

B

Encouraging vigorous exercise to strengthen the affected joint.

C

Restricting fluid intake to minimize swelling.

D

Administering opioid analgesics without considering non-pharmacological options.

Q89

Which of the following topics addresses the impact of government financial limitations on the quality and quantity of production in a healthcare system?

A

Supply and demand: Concept and laws of supply and demand

B

Determinants of national income: Gross national product (GNP) and net national product (NNP)

C

Financial limitation of the government and its effect on healthcare delivery system

D

State of technical knowledge

Q90

The nurse observes that an infant's weight gain over the past week is significantly below the expected percentile. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

A

Assess the infant's feeding technique and intake.

B

Prescribe a formula with a higher caloric content.

C

Consult with the pediatrician regarding a possible infection.

D

Initiate intravenous fluid administration.

Q91

The nurse notes that an infant's length is consistently below the 5th percentile. What is the primary purpose of continuing to monitor this parameter?

A

To evaluate potential growth abnormalities and developmental concerns.

B

To identify the infant's genetic predisposition.

C

To assess the infant's bone density.

D

To determine the infant's overall muscle mass.

Q92

The nurse is caring for a patient with an extraventricular drain. What is the primary purpose of regularly assessing the drain fluid for characteristics (e.g., color, clarity, odor)?

A

To identify potential complications such as infection or hemorrhage.

B

To assess the patient's pain level.

C

To measure the patient's blood pressure.

D

To determine the patient's fluid intake.

Q93

A patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) develops diarrhea. The nurse's initial action should be:

A

To immediately discontinue TPN and administer oral rehydration solution.

B

To administer antibiotics to treat the suspected infection.

C

To increase the dextrose concentration in the TPN solution.

D

To assess the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance and adjust the TPN infusion rate accordingly.

Q94

The core purpose of disciplinary actions within nursing is to:

A

To maintain a strict, inflexible hierarchy within the nursing team.

B

To create a system of rewards for exceptional performance.

C

Ensure adherence to professional standards and promote a culture of safety and accountability.

D

To solely focus on individual blame for errors.

Q95

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?

A

To measure urine glucose levels

B

To determine the patient's hydration status

C

To assess for intermittent bacterial shedding

D

To identify a specific bacterial strain

Q96

A patient is instructed to collect a first morning specimen. What is the primary rationale behind this collection method?

A

To minimize the patient's discomfort

B

To ensure accurate measurement of urine pH

C

To maximize the concentration of bacteria in the urine

D

To allow for a more complete assessment of the patient's hydration

Q97

Which of the following is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing acute pancreatitis?

A

Encouraging the patient to consume a high-fat diet.

B

Maintaining strict NPO status and monitoring for signs of fluid imbalance.

C

Applying heat packs to the abdominal area.

D

Administering intravenous antibiotics prophylactically.

Q98

Which statement best describes the nurse's role in managing a patient with suspected mesenteric ischemia?

A

Administering intravenous corticosteroids.

B

Implementing measures to maintain adequate perfusion to the intestines.

C

Applying direct pressure to the abdominal area.

D

Encouraging the patient to engage in strenuous physical activity.

Q99

What is the core purpose of the Saving Newborn Lives (SNL) program?

A

Promoting maternal employment during the postpartum period.

B

Providing extensive prenatal education for expectant mothers.

C

Reducing newborn mortality through early detection and effective management of complications.

D

Standardizing hospital protocols for all newborn care.

Q100

A patient with a congenital heart defect presents with a bluish mucous membrane discoloration. This indicates:

A

Peripheral edema.

B

Increased capillary refill time.

C

Central cyanosis.

D

Skin pallor.

Q101

A 5-year-old child is experiencing vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse recognizes the importance of:

A

Encouraging the child to continue their regular diet.

B

Administering anti-emetic medication without a clear diagnosis.

C

Monitoring electrolyte balance and fluid replacement to prevent dehydration.

D

Restricting all food and fluid intake until symptoms resolve.

Q102

A patient reports experiencing palpitations, anxiety, and a feeling of impending doom. The nurse recognizes these as potential signs of activation of which nervous system?

A

Somatic nervous system.

B

Enteric nervous system.

C

Parasympathetic nervous system.

D

Sympathetic nervous system.

Q103

A nurse is observing a patient's non-verbal communication. The patient is frequently furrowing their brow and tightly clenching their fists while describing their pain. This observation MOST likely indicates:

A

A lack of understanding of the pain assessment process.

B

A high level of pain intensity.

C

A need for the nurse to adjust the room temperature.

D

A desire to appear more assertive during the conversation.

Q104

The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings would be MOST indicative of this condition?

A

Photophobia and Kernig's sign.

B

Increased appetite and weight gain.

C

A normal body temperature and pulse.

D

Clear, lucid mental status.

Q105

Which of the following is a common presenting symptom of a child with a ventricular septal defect (VSD)?

A

Bradycardia

B

Hypoglycemia

C

Hypertension

D

Recurrent Respiratory Infections

Q106

When preparing an intravenous infusion, the nurse should *primarily* ensure:

A

The patient's blood pressure is stable before initiating the infusion.

B

The infusion rate is calculated based on the patient's weight alone.

C

The correct concentration is used.

D

The infusion bag is hung at the lowest level of the IV pole.

Q107

A patient with a suspected hip fracture requires immediate immobilization. Which of the following is the *most* appropriate initial action?

A

Applying a traction splint.

B

Applying a padded sling.

C

Encouraging the patient to walk with assistance.

D

Administering a muscle relaxant.

Q108

Which action best promotes a positive relationship with a patient's healthcare personnel?

A

Secretly sharing patient information with the healthcare personnel.

B

Assuming the healthcare personnel's intentions are always aligned with patient care.

C

Maintaining open and honest communication.

D

Avoiding all communication to maintain professional boundaries.

Q109

A patient receiving loop diuretics is experiencing hypokalemia. What is the nurse's initial action?

A

Administer magnesium sulfate

B

Increase the patient's fluid intake

C

Prescribe a high-protein diet

D

Monitor potassium levels frequently

Q110

A patient is admitted with suspected appendicitis. Which finding would be MOST indicative of this condition?

A

Generalized abdominal pain.

B

Pain initially periumbilical, then localized to the right iliac fossa.

C

Pain localized to the left iliac fossa.

D

Pain localized to the lower back.

Q111

Which of the following is a key difference between sterilization and disinfection?

A

Disinfection is only used for living organisms.

B

Sterilization is faster than disinfection.

C

Both processes require similar equipment.

D

Sterilization eliminates all microorganisms, while disinfection reduces their number.

Q112

A patient presents with edema, shortness of breath, and a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL. Which of the following is the MOST immediate priority for the nurse?

A

Administer a diuretic to reduce edema.

B

Schedule a consultation with a nephrologist.

C

Prevent further kidney damage

D

Initiate intravenous fluid administration.

Q113

Which of the following is characteristic of a fetus at 36 weeks gestation?

A

The infant's skin is entirely pigmented

B

Full term (37-40 weeks)

C

Newborn reflexes are fully developed

D

Fetal weight typically 2700-2900 grams

Q114

What is the recommended duration for handwashing with soap and water?

A

30 seconds.

B

15 seconds.

C

10 seconds.

D

At least 20 seconds.

Q115

A patient with ascites is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the MOST likely contributing factor?

A

Decreased oxygen saturation.

B

Increased respiratory rate.

C

Pleural effusion secondary to fluid accumulation.

D

Pulmonary hypertension.

Q116

What is the main function of IgG in the body's immune response?

A

Stimulating T-cell proliferation

B

Activating mast cells

C

Neutralizing pathogens and facilitating antibody-mediated immunity

D

Promoting inflammation

Q117

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a suspected nosocomial infection. Which factor MOST contributes to this risk?

A

Short hospital stays.

B

Prolonged stays in the hospital.

C

Limited access to healthcare facilities.

D

Lack of patient compliance.

Q118

A patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) reports a fever of 38.5°C, dysuria, and frequency. The priority nursing intervention is:

A

Administer antibiotics as prescribed.

B

Apply a warm compress to the perineal area.

C

Administer antispasmodics for pain relief.

D

Encourage increased fluid intake.

Q119

A newborn infant is being discharged home after receiving the Hepatitis B vaccine. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate instruction for the parents?

A

Administer the vaccine immediately upon returning home.

B

Receive a booster dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine at 6 months of age.

C

The vaccine provides lifetime immunity and no further administration is necessary.

D

Monitor the infant for signs of infection for 30 days.

Q120

A pregnant woman presents with a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg and proteinuria. What is the immediate priority action for the nurse?

A

Initiate antihypertensive medication and monitor for signs of pre-eclampsia.

B

Schedule a routine prenatal appointment.

C

Administer oxygen and monitor respiratory rate.

D

Instruct the patient to increase fluid intake.

Q121

A patient with diabetes is being discharged. What is the most important nutritional instruction to provide regarding their ongoing care?

A

Renal diet

B

Cardiac diet-DASH

C

Diabetic diet

D

High-protein diet

Q122

The concept of 'ethnocentrism' in nursing refers to:

A

Utilizing a universal approach to healthcare based on established medical guidelines.

B

Neutral observation of cultural practices without personal judgment.

C

Placing one's own cultural values and beliefs as the standard for judging other cultures.

D

Embracing and celebrating the diversity of cultural practices.

Q123

A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) presents with significant lymphadenopathy. Which finding would MOST likely indicate progression of the disease?

A

Decreased white blood cell count and anemia.

B

Mild, localized lymph node swelling without other symptoms.

C

Normal spleen size and function.

D

Rapid enlargement of lymph nodes with associated fever and night sweats.

Q124

When educating a family about child development, the nurse should emphasize the importance of:

A

Focusing solely on biological factors influencing child development.

B

Understanding how cultural norms and practices shape a child's social and cognitive development.

C

Ignoring the impact of social learning on a child's development.

D

Assuming all children develop at the same rate regardless of cultural background.

Q125

A patient diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is exhibiting signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding would MOST rapidly confirm this diagnosis?

A

Reduced white blood cell count

B

Elevated serum ketones

C

Decreased blood glucose levels

D

Increased bicarbonate levels

Q126

Which of the following movements is primarily facilitated by the contraction of the quadriceps femoris muscle?

A

Shoulder abduction.

B

Hip flexion.

C

Knee extension.

D

Ankle dorsiflexion.

Q127

A nurse is observing a patient experiencing a sudden onset of confusion and agitation. According to the stages of creative problem-solving, which initial action is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take?

A

Immediately administer an antipsychotic medication based on past patient experiences.

B

Gather objective data to identify potential causes, such as medication side effects or acute illness.

C

Assume the patient is experiencing a psychotic episode and initiate behavioral interventions immediately.

D

Attempt to engage the patient in a calming conversation to reduce anxiety.

Q128

Which of the following BEST describes 'level of wellness' in a nursing context?

A

A specific diagnostic category determined by medical professionals.

B

A state of complete physical and mental health.

C

A continuum ranging from optimal health to illness.

D

A fixed point of perfect health attainable by all individuals.

Q129

Which of the following is a key consideration in the management of a patient with a *Candida albicans* infection?

A

Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics.

B

Encouraging strenuous physical activity.

C

Maintaining adequate glucose levels.

D

Implementing a low-fiber diet.

Q130

A nurse is using a cognitive function rating scale where 1 = severe impairment and 5 = normal function. A patient consistently scores 4. What does this suggest?

A

Significant cognitive impairment

B

Mild cognitive impairment

C

Normal cognitive function

D

Superior cognitive function

Q131

A patient presents with localized pain, swelling, and redness following a deep wound. Laboratory cultures reveal the presence of *Staphylococcus aureus*. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A

Encourage the patient to elevate the affected limb.

B

Administer intravenous antibiotics targeting *Staphylococcus aureus*.

C

Administer topical antiseptic solutions without further investigation.

D

Apply a warm compress to the affected area.

Q132

What is the MOST important factor to consider when determining the etiology of musculoskeletal infection?

A

Patient's socioeconomic status.

B

Patient's risk factors, including recent trauma or invasive procedures.

C

Patient's immune status and comorbidities.

D

Patient's age and gender.

Q133

Which of the following adverse effects should a nurse MOST closely monitor when administering bronchodilators?

A

Hypotension

B

Anxiety

C

Bradycardia

D

Tachycardia

Q134

Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the primary goal of treatment for a child diagnosed with uncomplicated Tuberculosis?

A

To administer high doses of antibiotics for a prolonged period.

B

To achieve sputum cultures negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

C

To completely eliminate all symptoms within 24 hours.

D

To strictly isolate the child from all other individuals.

Q135

What is a key disadvantage of employing a 'mass' health education approach?

A

Increased participant engagement

B

Greater flexibility in scheduling

C

Limited opportunity for personalized feedback

D

Lower costs compared to other methods

Q136

A patient with chronic pain reports feeling overwhelmed and hopeless. According to holistic nursing principles, the nurse's initial response should prioritize:

A

Referring the patient to a physician for a prescription for an antidepressant.

B

Focusing solely on physical interventions like massage and heat packs.

C

Exploring the patient's emotional and spiritual well-being alongside their physical pain.

D

Immediately administering a strong opioid analgesic based on past patient history.

Q137

Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse in managing a patient diagnosed with Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)?

A

Implementing infection control measures and monitoring for complications.

B

Educating the patient on dietary restrictions.

C

Providing psychotherapy to reduce anxiety.

D

Administering long-term immunosuppressants.

Q138

A patient is experiencing epistaxis. Which of the following positions is *most* effective in controlling the bleeding?

A

The lateral decubitus position

B

The Fowler's position

C

The supine position

D

The Trendelenburg position

Q139

A patient receiving radiotherapy is complaining of skin irritation at the treatment site. What is the nurse's PRIMARY responsibility?

A

Apply a topical antibiotic ointment to the area.

B

Increase the patient's fluid intake to keep the skin hydrated.

C

Instruct the patient to avoid bathing in the treated area.

D

Assess the skin for signs of blistering or ulceration.

Q140

Babbling in a 6-month-old infant is MOST indicative of:

A

A need for increased caloric intake.

B

The infant's developing speech capabilities.

C

A parasitic infection.

D

An allergic reaction.

Q141

During an antenatal examination, a nurse notes that a pregnant woman's fundal height is 32 cm. At 36 weeks gestation, the normal fundal height is approximately:

A

15-20 cm

B

28-33 cm

C

38-42 cm

D

20-25 cm

Q142

A patient complains of sudden onset of pain and sensitivity to light following a minor abrasion. This is most indicative of:

A

Phantom Limb Pain

B

Nociception

C

Photic Reflex

D

Sensory Adaptation

Q143

A patient is experiencing epistaxis. Which of the following positions is most effective in controlling the bleeding?

A