Health Assistant (HA) Licensure Exam preparation SET 2

Q1

The sagittal plane divides the body into:

A

Superior and inferior parts

B

Right and left halves

C

Anterior and posterior parts

D

Medial and lateral parts

Q2

A patient with a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) will most likely have instability in which movement of the knee?

A

Excessive external rotation

B

Hyperextension

C

Posterior translation of tibia

D

Medial valgus stress

Q3

In the small intestine, the 'brush border' refers to:

A

The smooth muscle layer

B

Microvilli on enterocytes

C

The mucosal folds

D

The submucosal glands

Q4

Which lung volume is measured by a simple spirometer without any special maneuvers?

A

Residual volume

B

Inspiratory reserve volume

C

Tidal volume

D

Functional residual capacity

Q5

A reflex arc consists of which of the following components in correct sequence?

A

Effector → Motor neuron → Sensory neuron → Receptor → Integration center

B

Receptor → Sensory neuron → Integration center → Motor neuron → Effector

C

Receptor → Motor neuron → Integration center → Sensory neuron → Effector

D

Integration center → Receptor → Sensory neuron → Effector → Motor neuron

Q6

Which of the following hormones is stored in secretory granules in the posterior pituitary?

A

Oxytocin

B

Prolactin

C

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

D

Follicle-stimulating hormone

Q7

Regarding safe water storage at the household level, which practice is recommended to prevent recontamination?

A

Storing water in open containers

B

Using a clean cloth cover

C

Covering the container and using a narrow neck

D

Keeping water in direct sunlight

Q8

During an epidemic, which measure identifies high-risk groups fastest?

A

Attack rate

B

Prevalence

C

Mortality rate

D

Birth rate

Q9

What is the cutoff for low birth weight (LBW) used in Nepal's HMIS reporting?

A

< 2000 g

B

< 2500 g

C

< 3000 g

D

< 1500 g

Q10

The National Health Insurance Scheme (NHIS) covers what percentage of inpatient care costs at public hospitals for enrolled families?

A

50%

B

70%

C

80%

D

100%

Q11

In the Nepal immunization program, the 'Wastage Rate' for a vaccine is calculated as:

A

(Doses issued - Doses administered) / Doses issued × 100

B

(Doses administered / Doses issued) × 100

C

(Doses expired / Doses received) × 100

D

(Doses discarded / Doses administered) × 100

Q12

In evaluating public health programmes through HMIS in Nepal, what does 'service coverage indicator' assess?

A

Availability of trained staff only

B

Proportion of eligible population receiving a specific intervention

C

Cost of service delivery

D

Quality of infrastructure

Q13

Which of the following is the most appropriate method to assess the mental status of an adult patient during a physical exam?

A

Checking pupillary light reflex

B

Performing the Mini-Mental State Examination

C

Measuring blood pressure

D

Inspecting skin turgor

Q14

A patient with HBV infection has positive HBsAg, positive HBeAg, and elevated ALT. Which phase of HBV infection does this represent?

A

Immune tolerant phase

B

Immune active phase

C

Inactive carrier phase

D

Reactivation phase

Q15

The most common valvular lesion seen in chronic rheumatic heart disease in Nepal is:

A

Aortic stenosis

B

Mitral regurgitation

C

Mitral stenosis

D

Tricuspid regurgitation

Q16

A patient with chronic hepatitis B infection is started on antiviral therapy. Which drug is first-line according to Nepal treatment guidelines?

A

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

B

Interferon-alpha weekly injection

C

Ribavirin oral tablets

D

Lamivudine daily

Q17

A 55-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset right hemiplegia and aphasia. Symptoms started 2 hours ago. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A

Start aspirin 300 mg orally

B

Initiate IV rt-PA within 4.5 hours of symptom onset

C

Start enoxaparin immediately

D

Perform immediate craniotomy

Q18

Which of the following statements about anemia of chronic disease is true?

A

It is usually microcytic

B

Serum ferritin is low

C

It responds well to iron supplementation alone

D

It is associated with increased inflammatory cytokines

Q19

In IMCI, which antibiotic is the first-line treatment for suspected bacterial pneumonia in a child aged 2 months to 5 years?

A

Cotrimoxazole

B

Azithromycin

C

Amoxicillin

D

Cephalexin

Q20

In a triage situation, a patient with a minor abrasion who is walking around is tagged as:

A

Red

B

Yellow

C

Green

D

Black

Q21

A 28-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of intense fear, palpitations, shortness of breath, and fear of dying lasting for 10 minutes, triggered by a crowded place. Which diagnosis fits best?

A

Panic attack

B

Generalized anxiety disorder

C

Post-traumatic stress disorder

D

Specific phobia

Q22

A drug administered intravenously shows a two-compartment plasma concentration-time curve. What does the initial rapid decline represent?

A

Distribution phase into peripheral tissues

B

Elimination phase by kidneys

C

Absorption phase from injection site

D

Protein binding equilibrium

Q23

For a neonate with suspected sepsis, which antibiotic combination is most appropriate as first-line?

A

Ampicillin and Gentamicin

B

Cefotaxime and Amikacin

C

Penicillin G and Streptomycin

D

Vancomycin and Cefepime

Q24

A 60-year-old woman with hypertension and gout is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which adverse effect is most likely to exacerbate her gout?

A

Hyperuricemia

B

Hypokalemia

C

Hyponatremia

D

Hypercalcemia

Q25

A 58-year-old male on chronic digoxin therapy presents with nausea, visual halos, and bradycardia. Serum digoxin level is 2.8 ng/mL. The most appropriate immediate management is:

A

Administer digoxin-specific antibody fragments

B

Give IV calcium gluconate

C

Stop digoxin and monitor

D

Give IV atropine

Q26

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in preparing the operative skin for a clean-contaminated abdominal surgery?

A

Shaving the abdomen immediately before incision

B

Applying povidone-iodine solution in a circular motion from the center outward

C

Covering the abdomen with a sterile drape without any antiseptic preparation

D

Using alcohol swabs for skin disinfection

Q27

Which of the following is a characteristic of monofilament sutures compared to multifilament sutures?

A

Higher capillary action

B

Greater tissue drag

C

Lower risk of harboring bacteria

D

Easier to handle

Q28

During the secondary survey of a trauma patient, which finding would suggest an internal hemorrhage?

A

Visible external bleeding

B

Bruising over the abdomen

C

Mild abdominal tenderness

D

Distended abdomen with absent bowel sounds

Q29

Which of the following is the most common benign breast condition in young females?

A

Breast carcinoma

B

Fibroadenoma

C

Intraductal papilloma

D

Lipoma

Q30

A 45-year-old patient is scheduled for an elective abdominal surgery. What is the most appropriate timing for administering antibiotic prophylaxis to minimize the risk of surgical site infection (SSI)?

A

Within 24 hours before incision

B

Within 60 minutes before incision

C

Immediately after incision

D

At the time of wound closure

Q31

A child with a blunt abdominal injury shows signs of peritonitis but is hemodynamically stable. According to Nepal's trauma protocol, the most appropriate next step is:

A

Immediate laparotomy at the nearest health post

B

Observation and serial abdominal examinations at the district hospital

C

Transfer to a tertiary centre for exploratory surgery

D

Administration of antibiotics and discharge

Q32

Which of the following statements about the micro-haematocrit method for haemoglobin estimation is correct?

A

It provides a direct measurement of haemoglobin without conversion factors

B

It is more accurate than the cyanmethemoglobin method in anemic patients

C

It requires the use of a calibrated micro-cuvette and spectrophotometer

D

It estimates haemoglobin by converting the measured packed cell volume using a fixed factor

Q33

According to the surgical wound classification, a wound that is open or accidentally contaminated with gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract is categorized as:

A

Clean

B

Clean-contaminated

C

Contaminated

D

Dirty

Q34

After the first 24 hours of crystalloid resuscitation in a major burn, which fluid is most appropriate to add to the regimen?

A

5% albumin

B

5% dextrose

C

0.9% normal saline

D

Lactated Ringer's solution

Q35

For the diagnosis of intestinal schistosomiasis caused by Schistosoma mansoni, which stool microscopy finding is most specific?

A

Eggs with a lateral spine

B

Eggs with a terminal spine

C

Presence of miracidia

D

Presence of adult worms

Q36

A child weighing 12 kg presents with systemic envenomation. What is the initial dose of polyvalent anti-snake venom (ASV) recommended by Nepal guidelines?

A

5 vials (10 ml each)

B

10 vials (10 ml each)

C

2 vials (10 ml each)

D

15 vials (10 ml each)

Q37

Following a total thyroidectomy, a patient develops tingling in the fingers and perioral area, and a positive Chvostek sign is noted. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

B

Hypokalemia

C

Hypoparathyroidism

D

Hyperthyroidism

Q38

Which communication method is most suitable for teaching proper hand-washing technique to a group of primary school children?

A

PowerPoint lecture

B

Live demonstration with participants practicing

C

Distribution of pamphlets

D

Radio broadcast

Q39

Which vaccination schedule is most appropriate for a 12-year-old child with type 1 diabetes?

A

Annual influenza vaccine

B

Single dose of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine

C

Three-dose series of hepatitis B vaccine

D

All of the above

Q40

After a first unprovoked seizure, which investigation is most definitive to establish a diagnosis of epilepsy?

A

Routine EEG

B

MRI brain with contrast

C

Lumbar puncture

D

Serum electrolytes

Q41

A 28-year-old male presents with a high-energy injury and suspected pelvic fracture. During first aid, what is the most appropriate method to stabilize the pelvis?

A

Application of a firm pelvic binder around the lower abdomen and pelvis

B

Placement of the patient in the Trendelenburg position

C

Application of a full-length plaster spica cast

D

Insertion of a Foley catheter to decompress the bladder

Q42

A patient undergoes cardiac stress testing and a blood sample is required immediately post-test for troponin I measurement. Which collection tube should be used for highest accuracy?

A

Sodium citrate tube

B

Plain tube

C

EDTA tube

D

Lithium heparin tube

Q43

What is the recommended technique to limit venom spread in a patient bitten by a neurotoxic cobra in Nepal?

A

Apply a tight tourniquet proximal to the bite

B

Use a pressure immobilization bandage over the entire limb

C

Elevate the limb above heart level

D

Apply an ice pack directly over the bite

Q44

Which of the following actions is part of the IMCI follow-up schedule for a child classified as having severe dehydration after initial treatment?

A

Refer to a higher-level facility within 24 hours

B

Schedule a home visit on day 3

C

Provide ORS and advise return if symptoms worsen

D

Discharge without further follow-up

Q45

Which of the following structures is part of the axial skeleton?

A

Femur

B

Vertebral column

C

Scapula

D

Humerus

Q46

A 62-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease experiences an acute exacerbation with increased sputum purulence. Which antibiotic is first-line for a mild-to-moderate exacerbation without recent antibiotic exposure?

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

B

Vancomycin

C

Ceftriaxime

D

Gentamicin

Q47

Why must ice packs be conditioned (partially frozen) before placing them in a vaccine carrier for a 6-hour outreach session?

A

To ensure they stay frozen for the entire journey

B

To prevent the vaccine from being exposed to temperatures below 0 °C

C

To provide a stable temperature of 2-8 °C throughout the session

D

To reduce the weight of the carrier

Q48

A 22-year-old woman notices her urine turning pink after eating a large salad containing beets. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

A

Beeturia (benign excretion of beet pigments)

B

Microscopic hematuria due to glomerular disease

C

Urinary tract infection with hematuria

D

Myoglobinuria from recent exercise

Q49

The longitudinal groove on the anterior surface of the heart that contains the anterior interventricular artery is called:

A

Coronary sulcus

B

Atrioventricular groove

C

Anterior interventricular sulcus

D

Posterior interventricular sulcus

Q50

When using a spacer with a metered-dose inhaler for a child under 5 years, which step is essential for optimal drug delivery?

A

Shake the inhaler thoroughly

B

Attach the inhaler after the child inhales

C

Exhale fully before actuation

D

Hold the breath for about 10 seconds after inhalation

Q51

A patient with chronic heart failure is receiving a loop diuretic. Which of the following diuretics provides the greatest natriuretic effect in the thick ascending limb of Henle?

A

Furosemide

B

Hydrochlorothiazide

C

Spironolactone

D

Metolazone

Q52

What echocardiographic measurement defines severe mitral stenosis?

A

Mitral valve area <1.0 cm²

B

Mean trans-mitral gradient >10 mmHg

C

Pressure half-time >220 ms

D

All of the above

Q53

During a respiratory examination, the examiner should auscultate the lung fields in which systematic order?

A

Apices → bases, anterior then posterior

B

Bases → apices, posterior then anterior

C

Anterior → posterior, apices to bases on each side

D

Posterior → anterior, bases to apices on each side

Q54

Which segment of the nephron exhibits the highest metabolic activity due to extensive active transport of solutes?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

B

Descending thin limb of the loop of Henle

C

Collecting duct

D

Thin descending limb

Q55

Which of the following best describes the supervision mechanism that PHCCs provide over Health Posts in their catchment?

A

No supervisory role; HP operates independently

B

Quarterly technical and administrative supervision including HMIS review

C

Annual financial audit only by federal auditors

D

Supervision handled exclusively by WHO

Q56

What is the recommended intravenous loading dose of quinine for an adult with severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria?

A

10 mg/kg over 30 minutes

B

15 mg/kg over 30 minutes

C

20 mg/kg over 30 - 60 minutes

D

25 mg/kg over 60 minutes

Q57

Which of the following is NOT considered a component of a complete referral note according to Nepal's two-way referral system?

A

Presenting complaint and duration

B

Detailed socioeconomic status of the patient

C

Vital signs at the time of referral

D

Treatments given before referral

Q58

Which statement correctly distinguishes epidemic from pandemic?

A

Epidemic is global; pandemic is local

B

Pandemic is widespread across countries/continents; epidemic is local excess

C

Both terms mean constant presence in an area

D

Pandemic refers to low-level constant disease

Q59

Which of the following is the most reliable way to verify that an autoclash has reached sterilization temperature?

A

Checking the pressure gauge only

B

Using a biological indicator containing Bacillus stearothermophilus spores

C

Counting the sterilization cycle time only

D

Visual inspection of the load

Q60

During community health education sessions on exclusive breastfeeding, which behavior change communication model is most frequently used by health assistants in Nepal?

A

Health Belief Model

B

Stages of Change (Transtheoretical Model)

C

Social Cognitive Theory

D

Theory of Planned Behavior

Q61

Which of the following food combinations provides the highest biological value of protein (complementary protein) in a typical Nepali rural diet?

A

Rice and Ghee

B

Maize and Butter

C

Rice and Lentils (Dal Bhat)

D

Potato and Salt

Q62

A 65-year-old patient on warfarin (INR 3.0) requires urgent laparotomy. According to Nepal warfarin reversal protocols, which medication is recommended?

A

Vitamin K 10 mg IV

B

Prothrombin complex concentrate 50 IU/kg

C

Stop warfarin and give 1 unit plasma

D

Tranexamic acid

Q63

Confidentiality of patient information during HMIS reporting is primarily ensured by:

A

Removing all personal identifiers and reporting only aggregated data

B

Encrypting the DHIS2 database with a facility-specific key

C

Restricting data entry to the medical officer only

D

Storing paper registers in a locked cabinet

Q64

Which concentration technique is least likely to preserve the morphology of delicate protozoan trophozoites such as Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Formalin-ethyl acetate concentration

B

Zinc sulfate flotation

C

Sodium nitrate flotation

D

Direct saline wet mount

Q65

The National Safe Motherhood Programme in Nepal recommends that pregnant women complete a minimum of how many Antenatal Care (ANC) visits as per WHO-aligned protocol?

A

2 visits

B

3 visits

C

4 visits (ANC1, ANC2, ANC3, ANC4)

D

6 visits

Q66

Which of the following is the most common complication of untreated peptic ulcer disease in Nepal?

A

Gastric cancer

B

Gastric ulcer perforation

C

Gastric ulcer bleeding

D

Chronic gastritis

Q67

A weekly injectable GLP-1 receptor agonist that also promotes weight loss is:

A

Exenatide

B

Liraglutide

C

Semaglutide

D

Dulaglutide

Q68

A patient with a deep burn injury is being assessed. Which layer of the epidermis is the deepest and lies directly above the dermis?

A

Stratum corneum

B

Stratum granulosum

C

Stratum spinosum

D

Stratum basale

Q69

Which drug is included in the Nepal Essential Medicines List for the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)?

A

Sodium stibogluconate

B

Amphotericin B liposomal

C

Miltefosine

D

Paromomycin

Q70

According to Nepal's hepatitis B vaccination schedule, when is the second dose of the vaccine administered to a newborn?

A

0, 1 and 6 months

B

0, 1 and 2 months

C

0, 6 and 12 months

D

0, 2 and 4 months

Q71

Which of the following best describes the recommended timing for administering a single dose of prophylactic antibiotic before surgical incision?

A

Immediately upon arrival to the operating room

B

Within 60 minutes before skin incision (120 minutes for vancomycin/fluoroquinolones)

C

30 minutes after skin incision

D

At the time of wound closure

Q72

A 28-year-old woman with menorrhagia has hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL, MCV 68 fL, low ferritin, and high RDW. Oral ferrous sulfate is started. Which side effect is most commonly seen with oral iron therapy?

A

Gastrointestinal upset and constipation

B

Peripheral neuropathy

C

Photosensitivity

D

Hyperuricemia

Q73

In a health assistant setting, what is the most appropriate screening method for diabetic retinopathy?

A

Visual acuity testing only

B

Direct ophthalmoscopy after pupillary dilation

C

Fundus photography with tele-ophthalmology referral

D

Referral to ophthalmologist for slit-lamp exam

Q74

Which cranial nerve mediates the sensation of balance and head position (vestibular function)?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

B

Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)

C

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

D

Vagus nerve (CN X)

Q75

The correct disposal method for waste material from a rodent control program using anticoagulant baits is:

A

Bury in shallow pits at household level

B

Incinerate in designated facilities

C

Dispose in regular municipal waste

D

Compost with organic waste

Q76

In a burn patient with suspected inhalation injury, which of the following is the earliest and most sensitive indicator?

A

Stridor

B

Carboxyhemoglobin level

C

Elevated arterial carboxyhemoglobin with metabolic acidosis and soot in airways

D

Cyanosis

Q77

In Nepal's HMIS, the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is typically expressed as:

A

Deaths per 1,000 live births

B

Deaths per 100,000 live births

C

Deaths per 10,000 pregnancies

D

Deaths per 100,000 women of reproductive age

Q78

The chemical level of organization in the human body includes:

A

cells, tissues, and organs

B

atoms, ions, and molecules

C

bones, muscles, and nerves

D

organelles and cytoplasm

Q79

A patient presents with a suspected fracture of the pelvis and is in shock. Which of the following is the most appropriate pre-hospital fluid resuscitation strategy at the health post?

A

Initiate IV normal saline, titrate to palpable radial pulse and improving mentation, then refer urgently

B

Give oral rehydration solution only

C

Avoid IV fluids to prevent increased pelvic bleeding

D

Give 5% dextrose only

Q80

Which of the following patients should be classified as Priority I (Immediate/Red) according to Nepal's trauma triage protocol?

A

Open tibia fracture, GCS 15, BP 130/80 mmHg

B

Closed femur fracture, GCS 14, RR 18, HR 96

C

Penetrating abdominal wound, GCS 12, BP 88/60 mmHg, HR 124

D

Scalp laceration with controlled bleeding, GCS 15, stable vitals

Q81

A woman in the community is using the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) for contraception. Which of the following criteria must be met for LAM to be considered effective?

A

Infant is aged up to 12 months

B

Mother has regained her menstrual cycle

C

Infant is exclusively breastfed

D

Mother is using supplementary feeding

Q82

Which of the following is the recommended screening method for detecting diabetic neuropathy in a newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic patient?

A

Nerve conduction studies

B

Monofilament test for foot sensation

C

Electromyography (EMG)

D

Detailed neurological examination by neurologist

Q83

On a Mayo stand that has been prepared sterilely, which side is considered sterile?

A

The upper surface that faces the surgical team and holds the instruments

B

The lower surface that contacts the operating table

C

Both sides are sterile after autoclaving

D

Neither side is sterile once the stand is placed in the room

Q84

When using the Sahli's method for hemoglobin estimation, why is it necessary to wait for 10 minutes after adding 0.1 N HCl to the blood sample?

A

To allow the blood to coagulate

B

To ensure complete conversion of hemoglobin to acid hematin

C

To prevent the precipitation of proteins

D

To allow the sample to reach room temperature

Q85

The National Tuberculosis Programme recommends GeneXpert MTB/RIF as the initial diagnostic test for which group?

A

All presumptive TB patients

B

Only persons living with HIV

C

Only children under 5 years

D

Only smear-negative cases

Q86

Which oral antidiabetic drug is most associated with modest weight loss as a beneficial side effect?

A

Metformin

B

Pioglitazone

C

Glyburide

D

Acarbose

Q87

Which of the following is NOT one of the five major determinants emphasized in the WHO health promotion model that guides community diagnosis?

A

Social environment

B

Personal behavior

C

Genetic predisposition

D

Health services

Q88

The confluence of the common bile duct and the main pancreatic duct is called:

A

Ampulla of Vater

B

Sphincter of Oddi

C

Hepatic portal vein

D

Ligament of Treitz

Q89

In a patient with poorly controlled diabetes, what is the primary mechanism by which hyperglycemia increases the risk of surgical site infection?

A

Increased skin thickness

B

Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis

C

Decrease in red blood cell count

D

Increased production of clotting factors

Q90

In a patient with pheochromocytoma, which antihypertensive should be avoided unless adequate α‑blockade has been established first?

A

Beta‑blocker

B

ACE inhibitor

C

Calcium channel blocker

D

Direct renin inhibitor

Q91

In a patient with Pernicious Anemia, the underlying pathology is primarily due to:

A

Dietary lack of cobalt

B

Autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells

C

Malabsorption in the jejunum

D

Excessive consumption of tannins

Q92

In the cold chain, what does the term 'Conditioning' specifically refer to?

A

Cleaning the ILR shelves

B

Allowing frozen ice packs to melt slightly until water is heard sloshing inside

C

Adjusting the thermostat of the refrigerator

D

Checking the VVM color before use

Q93

In anatomical terminology, the term "distal" refers to a structure that is...

A

Nearer to the trunk

B

Farther from the point of attachment to the trunk

C

Nearer to the surface of the body

D

On the opposite side of the body

Q94

The 'referral chain' in Nepal is designed primarily to:

A

Ensure all patients go directly to the District Hospital

B

Avoid the use of Health Posts for common colds

C

Optimize resource utilization by providing care at the appropriate level

D

Eliminate the need for Medical Officers at PHCCs

Q95

In a pregnant woman (second trimester) with systemic envenomation from a viper, the recommended initial dose of polyvalent anti‑snake venom (ASV) is:

A

Half the adult dose

B

Same dose as non‑pregnant adult

C

Double the adult dose

D

No ASV; only supportive care

Q96

A 55-year-old woman with COPD is prescribed a Long-Acting Beta-Agonist (LABA). What is the primary purpose of this medication in her stable disease management?

A

To treat acute shortness of breath

B

To reduce the frequency of exacerbations and improve airflow

C

To cure the underlying alveolar destruction

D

To eliminate the need for smoking cessation

Q97

Which of the following contraceptive methods is the only one that simultaneously provides protection against both pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections, as per Nepal's guidelines?

A

Oral contraceptive pills

B

Injectable depot medroxyprogesterone acetate

C

Male condom

D

Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

Q98

When using the mhGAP intervention guide for depression, what is the recommended minimum duration of antidepressant medication before assessing the adequacy of the response?

A

1 week

B

2 weeks

C

4 to 6 weeks

D

3 months

Q99

During microscope cleaning, which material should never be used on the objective lenses because it can scratch the optical coating?

A

Lens cleaning tissue

B

Soft cotton swab

C

Paper towel

D

Microfiber cloth

Q100

A 40-year-old patient is on post-operative day 3 after a total abdominal hysterectomy. The nurse notes a sudden increase in vaginal bleeding with bright red blood and tachycardia. What is the most likely complication?

A

Uterine atony

B

Vaginal cuff dehiscence

C

Deep vein thrombosis

D

Urinary tract infection