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Q1
Normal fasting blood glucose level in adults is:
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D
Q2
Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is usually associated with:
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D
Q3
In Nepal, TB cases are managed under which national program?
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B
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D
Q4
Immunofluorescence microscopy uses:
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D
Q5
Which body fluid specimen requires the fastest processing time?
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B
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D
Q6
Calibration of analyzer should be done:
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D
Q7
Urinary iodine concentration in Nepal population is monitored as:
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B
C
D
Q8
Irradiated blood components prevent:
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C
D
Q9
A spectrophotometer measures:
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D
Q10
The LIAT (Laboratory Influenza Assay) in Nepal performs:
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D
Q11
When calibrating a pH meter before measuring serum samples, which of the following solutions should be used first?
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B
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D
Q12
In paper chromatography, what is the purpose of drawing a faint pencil line near the bottom of the paper?
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D
Q13
The 'Blank' in a biochemistry analyzer is primarily used to:
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D
Q14
Which statement about the maintenance of piston-driven pipettes is correct?
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D
Q15
In a biochemistry lab, which waste container is appropriate for discarded ethanol-used cleaning wipes?
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D
Q16
Which of the following is used to measure the pH of a solution most accurately in a clinical biochemistry lab?
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D
Q17
Which lipoprotein is primarily responsible for reverse cholesterol transport from peripheral tissues to the liver?
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D
Q18
Which oral hypoglycemic agent acts by increasing peripheral insulin sensitivity through activation of PPAR-ฮณ receptors?
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D
Q19
Low serum haptoglobin level is most characteristic of:
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D
Q20
A patient presents with obstructive jaundice. Which biochemical marker is most likely to show a significant disproportionate increase?
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D
Q21
Which of the following conditions is associated with decreased HDL-C levels?
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D
Q22
Which of the following best explains why the BCG method may underestimate albumin in patients with severe liver disease?
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D
Q23
A test has a TEa of 10 %, analytical CV of 2 % and bias of 3 %. What is the sigma metric for this test?
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D
Q24
Which stage of granulopoiesis is the last stage capable of mitotic division?
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D
Q25
Which hemoglobin variant shows a characteristic lemon-shaped fluorescent spot on citrate agar electrophoresis?
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D
Q26
Classification of anemia based on red cell size (MCV) includes all except:
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D
Q27
A peripheral smear from a neonate shows neutrophils with vacuoles, toxic granulation, and Dรถhle bodies. The most likely clinical scenario is:
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D
Q28
Prolonged bleeding time with normal clotting times is most suggestive of:
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C
D
Q29
In a patient with mild thrombocytopenia (platelet count 100,000-150,000/mmยณ) and no bleeding symptoms, what is the most appropriate management?
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D
Q30
Which of the following correctly describes the correct order of draw for blood collection?
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D
Q31
A peripheral blood smear shows 70% neutrophils, 20% lymphocytes, 5% monocytes, 3% eosinophils, and 2% basophils. What is the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) if the total leukocyte count is 8.0 ร 10โน/L?
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D
Q32
Which of the following statements about MCHC is true?
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D
Q33
In the context of bone marrow QC, 'hypocellularity' is defined as:
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D
Q34
A patient with suspected meningitis has CSF cultured on chocolate agar under 5% COโ. Which organism is most likely to be recovered?
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D
Q35
Which medium is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and contains a redox indicator such as resazurin?
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D
Q36
Which medium is specifically used to identify the motility of bacteria?
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D
Q37
A patient with community-acquired pneumonia shows Gram-positive lancet-shaped diplococci on sputum Gram stain. Which antibiotic is the drug of choice?
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C
D
Q38
Tinea pedis refers to a fungal infection of the:
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D
Q39
When interpreting DTM results, a red color change that appears only after 14 days of incubation most likely indicates:
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C
D
Q40
Which of the following viruses is an RNA virus that replicates its genome in the cytoplasm using its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase without a DNA intermediate?
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B
C
D
Q41
Which of the following statements about the HIV rapid immunochromatographic test is true in comparison with ELISA?
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B
C
D
Q42
Which immunoglobulin exists as a pentamer in its secreted form?
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B
C
D
Q43
In the passive hemagglutination test, the antigen is attached to which of the following?
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C
D
Q44
TT toxoid vaccine in pregnancy is recommended in Nepal at which gestational age?
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B
C
D
Q45
In an indirect hemagglutination assay for detecting antibodies against Brucella, the antigen is attached to:
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B
C
D
Q46
Which of the following best describes the staining pattern of PAS in a fungal infection?
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B
C
D
Q47
Which of the following is an indication that a paraffin block has been over-processed?
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C
D
Q48
During decalcification, a tissue shows persistent residual calcium after the standard time. Which step should be taken?
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D
Q49
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to label a sputum specimen for cytology?
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D
Q50
What is 'Asthenozoospermia'?
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D
Q51
Which leukocyte is characterized by a multi-lobed nucleus and is the first responder to acute bacterial infections?
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B
C
D
Q52
Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of glucose and amino acids?
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B
C
D
Q53
A laboratory technician is examining a patient suspected of having diabetes mellitus. Which hormone measurement would be most relevant for confirming the diagnosis?
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B
C
D
Q54
Which of the following structures is the primary site of gas exchange in the human respiratory system?
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D
Q55
Which antigen detection assay is commonly used in Nepalese laboratories for rapid diagnosis of Entamoeba histolytica?
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D
Q56
A patient with chronic diarrhea due to Giardia lamblia develops anemia and fatigue. What is the most likely underlying mechanism?
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D
Q57
What is the term for the fine red granules seen in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes infected by Plasmodium vivax?
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D
Q58
Which of the following statements about hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale or Necator americanus) infection is true?
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B
C
D
Q59
A distinctive feature of Taenia solium proglottids observed in stool is:
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D
Q60
For the detection of Entamoeba histolytica in a patient with dysentery, which part of the stool specimen should be prioritized for examination?
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B
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D
Q61
Which concentration method is most suitable for recovery of Cryptosporidium oocysts?
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D
Q62
In an automated electrolyte analyzer, the 'indirect' method differs from the 'direct' method mainly because:
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D
Q63
Which of the following is a common cause of "carry-over" in a discrete automated photometric analyzer?
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D
Q64
Which of the following is a temporary deferral criterion for blood donation in Nepal?
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D
Q65
A donor unit shows mild hemolysis (pink plasma) on visual inspection. What is the appropriate action?
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D
Q66
A laboratory worker is exposed to high levels of lead. Which of the following cellular changes is most characteristic of lead toxicity?
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B
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D
Q67
Which of the following best describes 'fibrinous inflammation'?
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D
Q68
During routine urine dipstick testing, a positive nitrite reaction is observed. Which organism is most likely responsible?
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D
Q69
Rhomboid-shaped crystals with positive birefringence found in synovial fluid are characteristic of:
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D
Q70
During routine maintenance, an instrument technician observes a gradual drift in the measured potassium values over several weeks, while sodium and chloride remain stable. Which troubleshooting step is most appropriate first?
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D
Q71
Compared with anti-D mediated erythroblastosis fetalis, anti-Kell mediated disease is characterized mainly by:
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D
Q72
A CSF specimen is sent to the laboratory at 4 ยฐC and processed within 2 hours. Which of the following statements about specimen handling is correct?
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B
C
D
Q73
A hematology analyzer using theimpedance (Coulter) method measures cell volume by detecting changes in electrical resistance as cells pass single file through an aperture. Which of the following parameters is directly proportional to the magnitude of the impedance pulse generated?
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D
Q74
The term "siderophages" refers to macrophages that have ingested which substance?
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D
Q75
During preventive maintenance, the instrument's internal temperature sensor is calibrated using a certified reference thermometer. How often should this calibration be performed according to standard manufacturer recommendations for most automated chemistry analyzers?
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D
Q76
In the zinc sulfate flotation method, what is the main reason that helminth eggs with specific gravity greater than 1.20 are not recovered?
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D
Q77
During a routine urinalysis, a dipstick shows a strong positive reaction for nitrites but the patient reports taking antibiotics for a urinary infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?
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D
Q78
Which cytokine is most closely associated with the execution phase of apoptosis through up-regulation of Fas ligand?
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D
Q79
A chest X-ray of a patient with chronic paragonimiasis most frequently shows which pattern?
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D
Q80
A child diagnosed with beta-thalassemia major should receive which of the following as the first line of management?
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C
D
Q81
Which immunoglobulin class is primarily responsible for antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against parasitic helminths?
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B
C
D
Q82
A 45-year-old male with a history of chronic liver disease presents with a markedly elevated serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. Which of the following conditions is most strongly associated with this finding?
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B
C
D
Q83
Which of the following best explains why Gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillin than Gram-positive bacteria?
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B
C
D
Q84
According to occupational safety guidelines, what is the maximum permissible concentration of formaldehyde in workplace air?
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D
Q85
A chronic sickle cell patient receives hydroxyurea therapy and shows increased HbF percentage on electrophoresis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of hydroxyurea in sickle cell disease?
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D
Q86
If the calcium concentration in a patient's plasma is markedly low, what is the expected effect on the prothrombin time?
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D
Q87
A granuloma is best defined as a collection of modified macrophages (epithelioid cells) surrounded by a rim of which cells?
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D
Q88
In the microscopic examination of stool, the presence of 'cysts with 1 to 4 nuclei and a centrally located karyosome' is characteristic of:
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B
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D
Q89
Which of the following laboratory parameters is the earliest and most sensitive marker for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
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B
C
D
Q90
Which of the following complications is most likely to result from chronic Plasmodium malariae infection?
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B
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D
Q91
In a minor crossmatch, the patient serum is used to test which component?
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D
Q92
Which vaccine is recommended for pregnant women at 28 weeks of gestation in the Nepal routine schedule?
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D
Q93
In an automated ELISA reader, the light source most frequently employed is:
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D
Q94
When a sample for prothrombin time (PT) is collected in a citrate tube, what is the minimum fill volume (as a percentage of nominal) required to prevent a falsely prolonged result?
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D
Q95
Which anatomical site is most commonly affected by Giardia lamblia infection?
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B
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D
Q96
The normal serum chloride concentration in adults is approximately:
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D
Q97
In automated electrolyte analysis, the sample volume required is usually very low (e.g., 50โ100 ยตL). This is because:
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D
Q98
Solidifying agent used for preparation of solid culture media is
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D
Q99
The solution used to fix a pap smear is:
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D
Q100
A patient's blood gas analysis shows: pH: 7.50, pCO2: 30 mmHg, HCO3-: 23 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance?
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D
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Lab Technology Licensure Exam preparation SET 2
100 multiple-choice questions ยท 100 questions ยท 1h 30m (practice format) ยท Mid-level licensing
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