Lab Technology Licensure Exam preparation SET 2

Q1

Cross-matching before blood transfusion involves:

A

Testing ABO compatibility only

B

Testing Rh compatibility only

C

Mixing donor RBCs with recipient serum and vice versa

D

Testing for malaria

Q2

The Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) detects:

A

Antibodies bound to RBCs in vivo

B

Antibodies in serum

C

Antigens on RBCs

D

Complement in serum

Q3

Which blood component is most commonly transfused?

A

Whole blood

B

Packed red blood cells

C

Platelet concentrate

D

Fresh frozen plasma

Q4

In Nepal, the Blood Transfusion Service is primarily under:

A

WHO

B

Red Cross Society

C

MoHP

D

Nepal Medical Association

Q5

The Coombs test is used in the diagnosis of:

A

Thalassemia

B

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

C

Sickle cell disease

D

G6PD deficiency

Q6

Platelets are stored at:

A

Room temperature

B

4 degrees Celsius

C

20-24 degrees Celsius with agitation

D

-20 degrees Celsius

Q7

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) should be transfused within:

A

1 hour of thawing

B

4 hours of thawing

C

24 hours of thawing

D

72 hours of thawing

Q8

The most common blood group in Nepalese population is:

A

O positive

B

A positive

C

B positive

D

AB positive

Q9

Cryoprecipitate is rich in:

A

Factor VIII and Fibrinogen

B

Albumin

C

Platelets

D

Red blood cells

Q10

Antibody screening is performed to detect:

A

Unexpected red cell antibodies

B

ABO antibodies

C

Rh antibodies only

D

White cell antibodies

Q11

The ideal temperature for blood component refrigerator is:

A

0-2 degrees Celsius

B

2-6 degrees Celsius

C

-20 degrees Celsius

D

-80 degrees Celsius

Q12

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is usually associated with:

A

IgG antibodies

B

IgM antibodies

C

IgA antibodies

D

Complement only

Q13

In Nepal, blood donation is:

A

Mandatory

B

Voluntary and remunerated

C

Voluntary and non-remunerated

D

Prohibited

Q14

A positive DAT in a neonate suggests:

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

B

Iron deficiency anemia

C

Vitamin B12 deficiency

D

Thalassemia

Q15

Donated whole blood should be stored at:

A

20-24 degrees Celsius

B

2-6 degrees Celsius

C

-20 degrees Celsius

D

-80 degrees Celsius

Q16

Type and Screen means:

A

ABO grouping and antibody screening

B

Rh typing only

C

Crossmatch and antibody identification

D

ABO grouping only

Q17

Massive transfusion is defined as replacement of:

A

1 unit of blood per hour

B

10 units of blood within 24 hours

C

5 units of blood within 1 hour

D

15 units of blood within 24 hours

Q18

Leukoreduction removes:

A

Red blood cells

B

Plasma

C

White blood cells

D

Platelets

Q19

The O-negative blood group has:

A

A and B antigens, no anti-A or anti-B

B

No A or B antigens, anti-A and anti-B present

C

No antigens, no antibodies

D

B antigen, anti-A antibody

Q20

Which component requires irradiation for immunocompromised patients?

A

Platelets

B

Fresh frozen plasma

C

Red blood cells

D

All cellular components

Q21

The Kell blood group system is clinically important because:

A

It causes mild transfusion reactions only

B

Antibodies can cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions

C

It is only important in pregnancy

D

It does not cause transfusion reactions

Q22

In Nepal, which hospital has the largest blood bank?

A

Patan Hospital

B

Bir Hospital

C

TU Teaching Hospital

D

BP Koirala Institute of Health Sciences

Q23

Autologous blood donation means:

A

Donating blood for another patient

B

Donating blood for ones own future use

C

Emergency transfusion

D

Blood exchange transfusion

Q24

The most dangerous complication of rapid blood transfusion is:

A

Hypothermia

B

Citrate toxicity

C

Hyperkalemia

D

All of the above

Q25

Gel card technology is used in Nepal blood banks for:

A

ABO and Rh typing

B

Serum chemistry

C

Hematology counts

D

Urinalysis

Q26

A cold agglutinin disease is associated with:

A

IgM antibodies active at 4 degrees Celsius

B

IgG antibodies active at 37 degrees Celsius

C

IgE antibodies

D

IgA antibodies

Q27

The maximum storage time for platelet concentrate is:

A

5 days

B

7 days

C

14 days

D

30 days

Q28

Granulocyte transfusion is indicated in:

A

Severe neutropenia with bacterial infection

B

Thrombocytopenia

C

Anemia

D

Hemophilia

Q29

Antigen phenotyping of donor blood is important for:

A

Improving transfusion safety

B

Increasing blood volume

C

Reducing cost

D

Shortening storage time

Q30

In Nepal, Hepatitis B screening is mandatory for:

A

Only whole blood donations

B

All blood donations

C

Only platelet donations

D

Emergency transfusion only

Q31

Which test is used to detect HIV in donated blood?

A

ELISA

B

RPR

C

Widal test

D

Mantoux test

Q32

Hemovigilance refers to:

A

Monitoring blood product quality

B

Surveillance of transfusion adverse events

C

Checking blood pressure during transfusion

D

Blood inventory management

Q33

A unit of whole blood in Nepal is approximately:

A

250 mL

B

350 mL

C

450 mL

D

550 mL

Q34

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs:

A

During transfusion

B

Within 24 hours

C

After 24 hours to 14 days

D

After 3 months

Q35

Pathogen reduction technology is used to:

A

Increase shelf life of blood

B

Inactivate viruses bacteria and parasites in blood components

C

Improve RBC oxygen carrying capacity

D

Enhance platelet function

Q36

The Nepal Society of Blood Bank and Transfusion Medicine was established in:

A

2000

B

2005

C

2010

D

2015

Q37

The rose bengal test is used for the detection of:

A

Brucellosis

B

Rheumatoid factor

C

Rabies

D

Syphilis

Q38

The shake test is performed to detect:

A

Fresh frozen plasma quality

B

Cryoprecipitate viability

C

Leukoreduction efficiency

D

Platelet activation

Q39

The Nepal Blood Transfusion Act was enacted in:

A

2005 BS

B

2010 BS

C

2055 BS

D

2067 BS

Q40

The extended antigen phenotype includes:

A

D, C, c, E, e, K, k, Fy(a), Jk(a)

B

ABO only

C

Rh only

D

ABO and Rh

Q41

In sterilization monitoring, a process indicator differs from a biological indicator because it:

A

Detects the presence of viable spores after the cycle

B

Changes color or form to show that the intended parameters (temperature, time) were reached

C

Is required for every sterilization run by regulatory agencies

D

Provides a quantitative measure of microbial kill

Q42

Which tumor marker is most specific for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid?

A

Calcitonin

B

Thyroglobulin

C

CEA

D

CA 19-9

Q43

Which nephron segment is impermeable to water but actively transports sodium and chloride?

A

Descending limb of the loop of Henle

B

Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

C

Proximal convoluted tubule

D

Collecting duct

Q44

The principle of 'optimal use of blood' encourages:

A

Transfusion of specific components rather than whole blood whenever possible

B

Use of whole blood for all anemia cases

C

Avoidance of any transfusion in surgical patients

D

Collection of blood only from paid donors

Q45

An ascitic fluid analysis shows a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 0.8 g/dL. Which underlying condition is most likely?

A

portal hypertension

B

peritoneal carcinomatosis

C

nephrotic syndrome

D

congestive heart failure

Q46

What is the most common clinical presentation of heavy Hymenolepis nana infection?

A

Severe abdominal pain

B

Pruritus ani

C

Mild diarrhea and abdominal discomfort

D

Pulmonary hypertension

Q47

Which vaccine in the Nepal schedule is given at 6 weeks and 10 weeks but not at 14 weeks?

A

Pentavalent

B

Rotavirus

C

OPV

D

HepB

Q48

In a K₂EDTA tube, how many gentle inversions are recommended to ensure adequate mixing and defibrination?

A

3 times

B

5 times

C

7 times

D

10 times