Master of Physiotherapy (MPT) Entrance Exam preparation SET 2

Q1

A patient reports using performance-enhancing supplements. Which approach is MOST appropriate for the physiotherapist to take?

A

Immediately advising the patient to cease supplement use.

B

Assuming the patient's self-reported use is appropriate.

C

Offering a generic nutritional plan without considering the supplement's effects.

D

A thorough assessment of the supplement's potential impact on their physiological state.

Q2

Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for managing pain and inflammation following a shoulder dislocation?

A

Prolonged immobilization with a sling.

B

Applying heat to the affected area.

C

Aggressive stretching of the rotator cuff muscles.

D

Immobilization and early controlled movement.

Q3

A patient is learning to walk again after a spinal cord injury. Which motor learning concept is MOST crucial to incorporate into the rehabilitation program?

A

Focusing solely on maximizing muscle strength through resistance training.

B

The concept of 'motor rehearsal' - repeatedly practicing the movement to solidify the motor program.

C

Ignoring the role of sensory feedback during the initial stages of training.

D

Immediate, full-speed walking without any initial support or assistance.

Q4

A patient post-arthroplasty demonstrates significant swelling and bruising. Which intervention is MOST critical to address this initial complication?

A

Administering anti-inflammatory medication without further assessment.

B

Applying compression bandages to restrict fluid accumulation.

C

Encouraging the patient to perform active range of motion exercises.

D

Elevation and ice application.

Q5

What is the significance of recognizing 'social problems' of the disabled within a physiotherapy context?

A

To understand and address the systemic inequalities and barriers that impact disabled individuals' access to healthcare and well-being.

B

Assuming that disabled individuals are solely responsible for their health outcomes.

C

Ignoring the unique challenges faced by disabled individuals.

D

Treating all disabled individuals identically.

Q6

A 78-year-old patient presents with progressive difficulty rising from a chair. Assessment reveals reduced lower limb strength, decreased ankle range of motion, and a history of falls. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate as the initial step in management?

A

Prescribe a high-impact aerobic exercise program to improve cardiovascular fitness.

B

Recommend pharmacological pain management before addressing functional limitations.

C

Initiate a balance training program focused solely on static balance exercises.

D

Implement a progressive lower limb strengthening program incorporating functional activities such as sit-to-stand practice.

Q7

A patient presents with persistent shoulder pain following a subluxation. Which intervention would be MOST appropriate to address the underlying instability?

A

Rotator cuff strengthening exercises with emphasis on scapular stabilization.

B

Immediate application of a sling for immobilization.

C

Ignoring the instability and focusing on pain reduction.

D

Prolonged passive range of motion exercises.

Q8

A 35-year-old woman presents with chronic pelvic pain suspected to be caused by endometriosis. She is not currently attempting to conceive. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A

Referral for laparoscopic surgical excision of endometriotic lesions

B

Empiric hormonal therapy, such as combined oral contraceptives or a progestin

C

Reassurance with topical heat application alone

D

Pelvic floor muscle biofeedback and targeted exercises

Q9

Which type of stroke is typically associated with a larger area of cerebral infarction?

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

B

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

C

Embolic stroke

D

Ischemic stroke

Q10

What is the primary benefit of using RQ (Respiratory Quotient) during exercise testing?

A

To directly measure VO2 max.

B

To determine the proportion of carbohydrate versus fat being utilized as fuel.

C

To assess the patient's hydration status.

D

To calculate the total energy expenditure.

Q11

Which bone articulates with the acetabulum to form the hip joint?

A

Fibula

B

Femur

C

Tibia

D

Patella

Q12

During a physiotherapy assessment of a patient with Parkinson's disease, the therapist observes significant postural instability. What is the MOST immediate intervention to address this?

A

Balance training exercises

B

Application of heat to the affected muscles

C

Isometric muscle strengthening exercises

D

Passive range of motion exercises

Q13

An athlete is exhibiting signs of burnout. A primary intervention should focus on:

A

Providing the athlete with additional support from teammates

B

Identifying and addressing the underlying causes of excessive stress

C

Implementing a strict sleep schedule

D

Increasing training volume to restore a sense of purpose

Q14

What is the primary goal of maintaining passive range of motion in a child with cervical vertebral junction anomalies?

A

To directly reduce pain symptoms.

B

To accelerate neurological recovery.

C

To prevent joint stiffness and contractures.

D

To increase muscle strength.

Q15

A therapist is designing a motor learning intervention for a patient with a complex neurological condition. Which theoretical component is MOST vital to ensure the patient's movement skills are transferable to different environments?

A

Motor Imagery Training

B

Task-Specific Practice

C

Generalization Strategies

D

Sensory Integration Techniques

Q16

A 4-year-old child with a history of preterm birth demonstrates significant delays in gross motor development. Which intervention would be MOST beneficial in addressing these delays?

A

Focusing solely on strengthening exercises for the affected limbs.

B

Restricting the child's movement to minimize the risk of injury.

C

A multi-faceted approach including sensory integration therapy and targeted motor skill training.

D

Providing the child with a large motor vehicle to encourage active play.

Q17

Which of the following is the primary purpose of prophylactic antibiotics in post-operative care?

A

To treat existing infections.

B

To accelerate wound healing.

C

To reduce patient discomfort.

D

To prevent surgical site infections.

Q18

A patient with SCI reports experiencing phantom limb sensation. What is the MOST appropriate initial physiotherapy approach?

A

Aggressive attempts to move the phantom limb.

B

Application of ice to the phantom limb.

C

Gradual and controlled sensory re-education exercises.

D

Complete avoidance of any movement in the affected limb.

Q19

A patient with chronic fatigue is experiencing muscle spasm and tension. Which intervention would be MOST appropriate to address this?

A

Increased intensity of cardiovascular training

B

High-intensity interval training

C

Relaxation techniques and stretching exercises

D

Increased protein intake

Q20

A patient with SCI demonstrates significant weakness in their trunk muscles. Which intervention is MOST effective in promoting trunk stability?

A

Passive trunk flexion exercises without resistance.

B

High-velocity trunk rotation exercises to increase range of motion.

C

Core stabilization exercises using proprioceptive feedback.

D

Focusing solely on limb strengthening exercises.

Q21

In the management of a patient recovering from an ankle sprain, what is the primary purpose of performing a gait analysis?

A

To measure the patient's walking speed

B

To determine the patient's preferred footwear

C

To identify biomechanical deviations that contribute to pain and instability

D

To document the patient's baseline walking ability for tracking recovery

Q22

Which of the following best describes the primary role of creatine phosphate in muscle energy metabolism?

A

Break down glucose for energy production.

B

Transport calcium ions across the cell membrane.

C

Rapidly replenish ATP during intense muscle contractions.

D

Generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.

Q23

A patient with a recent stroke presents with impaired trunk control. Which intervention would be MOST beneficial in addressing this?

A

Encouraging prolonged sitting to maintain posture.

B

Focusing solely on strengthening the upper limb muscles.

C

Passive stretching of the trunk muscles.

D

Exercises that challenge postural stability and dynamic balance.

Q24

A patient with thoracic outlet syndrome reports pain and numbness in the arm. Which of the following is the MOST relevant clinical finding?

A

Increased muscle tone in the upper trapezius

B

Decreased capillary refill in the hand

C

Positive Tinel's sign

D

Adson's maneuver positivity

Q25

Which of the following best describes the role of proprioceptive training in the rehabilitation of a patient with an ankle sprain?

A

To improve the patient's awareness of joint position and enhance neuromuscular control.

B

To directly reduce pain signals originating from the injured ankle.

C

To completely prevent further ligament damage.

D

To increase the ankle's ability to withstand external forces.

Q26

A patient with multiple sclerosis experiences fluctuating weakness. Which intervention would be most appropriate to address this variability?

A

A flexible, individualized exercise program adaptable to symptom fluctuations.

B

Focusing solely on maximizing muscle strength during periods of remission.

C

A fixed, standardized exercise regime performed daily.

D

Restricting all physical activity to prevent exacerbation of symptoms.

Q27

A patient with upper extremity ataxia presents with significant difficulty performing bimanual tasks. Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate as a primary intervention?

A

Task-specific bimanual coordination training

B

General lower extremity strengthening program

C

Vestibular rehabilitation to improve postural stability

D

Prolonged rest to minimize fatigue

Q28

Which of the following medications is MOST commonly used to manage neuropathic pain associated with conditions such as diabetic neuropathy?

A

Gabapentin

B

Naproxen

C

Ketorolac

D

Ibuprofen

Q29

What is the significance of 'proactive' intervention within the concept of prehabilitation?

A

Waiting for the patient to experience symptoms before initiating treatment.

B

Ignoring the patient's reported pain levels.

C

Strictly adhering to a predetermined treatment protocol regardless of patient response.

D

Taking preventative measures to minimize the risk of adverse outcomes.

Q30

During a pediatric assessment of a child with autism, what is the primary goal of Constraint Induced Movement Therapy (CIMT)?

A

To teach the child to use assistive devices independently.

B

To reduce anxiety and improve social interaction.

C

To promote voluntary movement by restricting movement in one limb.

D

To increase sensory stimulation to improve perceptual processing.

Q31

Which of the following is a crucial component of managing the non-motor symptoms experienced by some patients with Parkinsonism?

A

Addressing sleep disturbances.

B

Focusing solely on motor symptom management.

C

Administering anti-inflammatory medication.

D

Increasing dietary protein intake.

Q32

A patient is learning to walk again after a spinal cord injury. According to motor control theories, what is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A

Advanced balance training before gait initiation.

B

Simple, assisted stepping exercises.

C

Independent walking without any assistance.

D

Passive range of motion exercises in all joints.

Q33

Which of the following best describes the concept of a 'barrier-free environment' within the context of community physiotherapy?

A

Highly specialized physiotherapy clinic equipped with advanced technology.

B

System of prioritizing patients based on their socioeconomic status.

C

Physical environment designed to remove obstacles that impede the mobility and participation of individuals with disabilities.

D

Purely aesthetic design intended to create a visually appealing space.

Q34

A patient with a newly diagnosed glioblastoma is presenting with increased headaches and difficulty with balance. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial physiotherapy intervention?

A

Neuromuscular assessment and stabilization exercises to address potential weakness and postural instability.

B

Application of heat packs to the tumor site for pain relief.

C

Initiation of aggressive range of motion exercises without a thorough assessment.

D

Prescribing a high-impact aerobic exercise program to improve overall fitness.

Q35

The concept of 'social determinants of health' is MOST relevant to understanding the prevalence of obesity. Which factor is a prime example of a social determinant?

A

The patient's adherence to a strict calorie-restricted diet.

B

The patient's individual genetic predisposition to weight gain.

C

The patient's level of physical activity during leisure time.

D

Access to affordable, nutritious food options within the patient's community.

Q36

When designing a rehabilitation program for a child with a musculoskeletal problem, what is the MOST important factor to consider regarding their activity level?

A

The child's preferred sport.

B

The child's perceived level of pain.

C

The child's age.

D

Their current functional capabilities and return-to-sport goals.

Q37

A patient with Myasthenia Gravis is being treated with physiotherapy. Which of the following interventions is MOST important to avoid due to potential exacerbation of neuromuscular weakness?

A

Gentle stretching

B

Dynamic range of motion exercises

C

Passive joint mobilization

D

Excessive isometric contractions

Q38

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of using a vector in the transmission of a contagious disease?

A

To enhance the host's immune response.

B

To facilitate the transfer of infectious agents from one host to another.

C

To directly introduce pathogens into the host's bloodstream.

D

To provide a protective barrier against infection.

Q39

An 11-year-old child with a chronic illness presents with significant limitations in functional mobility. Which assessment tool is MOST appropriate to comprehensively evaluate the child's overall functional ability and independence?

A

Visual inspection of the child's gait pattern.

B

Manual muscle testing focused solely on quantifying muscle strength.

C

The Functional Independence Measure (FIM).

D

Subjective assessment based solely on the child's verbal report of limitations.

Q40

Which of the following is a critical component of physiotherapy management for patients with SCI concerning respiratory function?

A

Regular assisted coughing exercises.

B

Promoting prolonged periods of prone positioning.

C

Passive chest physiotherapy.

D

Encouraging deep breathing with full lung expansion.

Q41

A 68-year-old male patient presents with left hemiparesis following a left MCA stroke. His affected limb demonstrates significant spasticity and resistance to movement. Which intervention would be MOST appropriate as a primary treatment to address this immediate clinical presentation?

A

Gentle active movement exercises with emphasis on range of motion.

B

Application of heat packs to increase muscle relaxation.

C

Immobilization of the affected limb to prevent further injury.

D

Administering a high dose of anticholinergic medication to reduce spasticity.

Q42

Which of the following is a key consideration when managing a patient with Spinal Arachnoiditis and persistent back pain?

A

Providing detailed education regarding the pathophysiology of the condition

B

A multidisciplinary approach involving pain management specialists

C

Focusing exclusively on spinal mobilization techniques

D

Implementing a prolonged period of complete bed rest

Q43

A patient with acute rotator cuff tear presents with significant pain and limited range of motion. Which of the following interventions is *most* crucial in the initial phase of treatment?

A

Immediate mobilization of the shoulder joint to prevent stiffness.

B

Protection of the joint through immobilization and pain management.

C

Application of heat therapy to increase tissue extensibility.

D

Introduction of eccentric strengthening exercises without pain relief.

Q44

When assessing a patient with HMSN, why is it important to assess the patient's ability to perform fine motor tasks?

A

To identify the extent of sensory impairment impacting dexterity and coordination.

B

To determine the patient's cardiovascular fitness.

C

To evaluate the patient's ability to tolerate pain.

D

To assess the patient's overall muscle strength.

Q45

Which of the following best describes the primary rationale for utilizing selective dorsal rhizotomy (SDR) in patients with spasticity?

A

To improve proprioceptive awareness.

B

To directly increase muscle strength and power.

C

To interrupt the sensory component of the spastic reflex arc.

D

To reduce pain perception in the affected limb.

Q46

Which of the following best describes the importance of regular, low-intensity exercise for older adults in terms of maintaining functional independence?

A

Focusing solely on improving flexibility and range of motion.

B

Promoting rapid weight loss regardless of functional impact.

C

Preserving muscle strength and endurance necessary for daily activities.

D

Rapidly increasing cardiovascular fitness to achieve peak performance.

Q47

Which of the following dietary strategies is MOST appropriate for an endurance athlete aiming to maximize glycogen stores prior to a marathon?

A

High-fat intake to increase energy density.

B

Strict carbohydrate loading with minimal protein.

C

Supplementing with creatine monohydrate.

D

Consuming a moderate amount of complex carbohydrates with a small amount of protein.

Q48

Which biochemical pathway is fundamental to the synthesis of ATP during muscle contraction?

A

Glycolysis

B

Lipolysis

C

Oxidative Phosphorylation

D

Protein Synthesis

Q49

A patient with cerebellar symptoms exhibits significant difficulty with reaching for objects at different distances. This is primarily related to cerebellar involvement in:

A

Sensory feedback

B

Muscle power development

C

Spatial orientation and movement control

D

Joint stability

Q50

Which of the following represents a fundamental principle guiding the implementation of prehabilitation strategies?

A

Individualized assessment and tailored interventions.

B

Ignoring patient preferences during the program.

C

Focusing solely on acute pain management.

D

Standardized exercise protocols for all patients.

Q51

A patient with a chronic sprain presents with persistent pain and stiffness. Which intervention would be most appropriate to address the underlying tissue dysfunction?

A

Aggressive manual therapy focusing on restoring joint mobility.

B

Immediate return to full functional activity.

C

A progressive proprioceptive exercise program.

D

Prolonged immobilization in a cast.

Q52

A patient with ataxia demonstrates an inability to accurately judge distances while reaching. This is most likely due to a deficit in:

A

Muscle strength.

B

Range of motion.

C

Proprioception.

D

Balance.

Q53

Which of the following best describes the primary goal of bracing in the management of a displaced femoral shaft fracture?

A

To facilitate rapid realignment of the fracture fragments.

B

To provide a comfortable and unrestricted range of motion.

C

To provide stability and promote callus formation.

D

To completely prevent all movement of the injured limb.

Q54

Which of the following best describes the impact of hypoxia on muscle metabolism?

A

Enhanced mitochondrial enzyme activity.

B

Shift towards anaerobic glycolysis and lactate accumulation.

C

Increased oxygen consumption rates.

D

Increased utilization of fatty acids for energy production.

Q55

Which of the following best describes the primary goal of incorporating sensory re-education in the management of a patient post-crush injury?

A

To improve the cosmetic appearance of the limb.

B

To increase muscle strength for functional activities.

C

To restore normal sensory input to the affected limb, facilitating adaptive movement patterns.

D

To completely eliminate all pain sensations from the limb.

Q56

When evaluating a patient with a significant knee flexion contracture, which assessment tool is MOST useful for quantifying the limitation?

A

Patient-reported pain levels.

B

Goniometry.

C

Palpation of the hamstring muscle.

D

Visual assessment of the knee range of motion.

Q57

A patient reports intermittent vertigo triggered by changes in head position. Which of the following is a key component of the physiotherapy assessment to determine the underlying cause?

A

Measuring the patient's blood pressure.

B

Administering a questionnaire about their anxiety levels.

C

Detailed history of head movements and associated symptoms.

D

Performing a full musculoskeletal screening.

Q58

What is the MOST important consideration when assessing a patient presenting with lateral ankle pain?

A

Thorough evaluation of ligamentous stability.

B

Immediately prescribing NSAIDs for pain relief.

C

Measuring the patient's subjective pain level.

D

Performing a simple palpation of the lateral joint line.

Q59

Which laboratory test result would MOST strongly support a diagnosis of pyogenic infection in a patient with suspected joint infection?

A

Normal serum creatinine levels.

B

Elevated levels of C-reactive protein (CRP).

C

Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

D

Elevated white blood cell count with neutrophilic predominance.

Q60

When designing a physiotherapy program for a patient with early-stage Parkinson's Disease, what is the MOST important principle to maintain?

A

Maintainability and adherence to the program

B

Maximizing muscle hypertrophy

C

Focusing solely on symptom relief

D

Rapidly progressing through the exercises

Q61

During the assessment of a patient following a leprosy-related limb reconstruction, a key clinical finding is significant muscle atrophy. What is the PRIMARY physiotherapy intervention to address this?

A

Immediate application of electrical stimulation to stimulate muscle contraction.

B

Progressive resistance exercise, tailored to the patient's functional goals and incorporating principles of neuromuscular training.

C

Passive range of motion exercises to maintain joint flexibility.

D

Focusing exclusively on postural correction without addressing muscle weakness.

Q62

A patient with spina bifida demonstrates significant lower limb weakness. What is the MOST appropriate initial physiotherapy goal?

A

Improve lower limb muscle strength and endurance.

B

Maintain the patient in a fixed, supportive position.

C

Reduce spasticity through pharmacological intervention.

D

Focus solely on improving balance and coordination.

Q63

A patient with a spinal fracture presents with muscle spasms. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate to manage this symptom while minimizing further tissue damage?

A

Aggressive muscle strengthening exercises.

B

Gentle stretching and relaxation techniques.

C

Application of ice packs for extended periods.

D

Maintaining the patient in a prolonged, rigid immobilization position.

Q64

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a 'neutral spine' posture?

A

Ignoring the patient's reported pain levels during posture assessment.

B

Maintaining optimal spinal alignment to minimize stress on the intervertebral discs.

C

Promoting excessive spinal flexion to increase range of motion.

D

Creating a rigid, fixed spinal posture.

Q65

Which of the following best describes the biomechanical role of cartilage within a synovial joint?

A

To provide structural support and rigidity.

B

To directly generate force for movement.

C

To actively control joint stability.

D

To reduce friction and provide a smooth gliding surface.

Q66

During a CIMT session for a patient with scoliosis, the therapist actively guides the patient through specific movements. This is primarily aimed at:

A

Restoring optimal movement patterns and postural alignment.

B

Increasing the patient's awareness of their postural deviations.

C

Creating a static postural correction.

D

Directly strengthening the muscles on the affected side.

Q67

A patient presents with chronic wrist pain and stiffness. Palpation reveals tenderness over the scaphoid bone. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A

Scaphoid fracture.

B

Ganglion cyst.

C

Carpal tunnel syndrome.

D

De Quervain's tenosynovitis.

Q68

A patient with a deep wound infection demonstrates increasing neutrophil counts and elevated CRP levels. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A

Elevation of the affected limb

B

Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics

C

Topical application of antiseptic ointment

D

Increased dietary intake of antioxidants

Q69

What is the primary goal of providing a patient with a stroke a 'practice schedule'?

A

To reduce the patient's motivation for rehabilitation.

B

To promote neuroplasticity and functional recovery.

C

To create a rigid and inflexible routine.

D

To simplify the patient's daily life.

Q70

Which of the following statements accurately describes 'validity' in research?

A

The statistical significance of the study results

B

The ease and speed of data collection

C

The degree to which a measurement accurately reflects what it is intended to measure

D

The total number of participants enrolled in the study

Q71

When assessing a patient's progress using the Brunnstrom approach, what is the significance of observing a 'phase' (stage) of movement?

A

A permanent limitation in the patient's movement capabilities

B

A fixed point in the patient's treatment plan

C

A defined stage in the patient's neurological recovery process

D

A measure of the therapist's technical skill

Q72

What is the primary rationale for utilizing proprioceptive exercises in rehabilitation following a lower limb fracture?

A

To improve balance and coordination.

B

To reduce pain through distraction techniques.

C

To increase muscle mass and strength.

D

To restore joint position sense and improve neuromuscular control.

Q73

Which bacterial process is MOST responsible for the ability of Bacillus anthracis to survive in harsh environmental conditions?

A

Binary fission

B

Spore formation

C

Transformation

D

Conjugation

Q74

The subjective visual vertical (SVV) is best described as:

A

The angle of the head relative to the ground

B

The actual angle of the head relative to gravity

C

The angle of the eyes relative to each other

D

The patient's perception of the direction of gravity

Q75

A patient with peripheral neuropathy reports a burning sensation. What is the MOST appropriate initial physiotherapy approach?

A

Electrical stimulation to the affected area.

B

Application of ice packs to reduce inflammation.

C

Gentle sensory re-education exercises.

D

High-intensity exercise to stimulate nerve activity.

Q76

A patient with SCI presents with persistent foot drop. Which intervention is most appropriate for initial management?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion exercises.

B

Calf muscle stretching.

C

Weight-bearing exercises.

D

Heel lifts.

Q77

A patient with a chronic peripheral nerve injury demonstrates significant difficulty with fine motor tasks. Which intervention is most likely to be beneficial?

A

General strengthening exercises for the hand.

B

High-velocity movements to stimulate nerve regeneration.

C

Task-specific training with adaptive equipment.

D

Prolonged periods of rest to reduce fatigue.

Q78

A 30-year-old male with complete paraplegia following a spinal cord injury presents with frequent episodes of autonomic dysreflexia triggered by external stimuli such as a hot bath. Which intervention is MOST appropriate as a primary preventative measure?

A

Encouraging the patient to maintain a regular, high-fiber diet.

B

Administering a prophylactic dose of an alpha-adrenergic blocker.

C

Initiating a rapid intravenous infusion of hydromorphone.

D

Immediate removal of the trigger stimulus and elevation of the affected limb.

Q79

The application of medium-frequency currents is MOST effective in treating which condition?

A

Deep tissue inflammation

B

Severe bone fractures

C

Muscle spasm and pain

D

Acute nerve damage

Q80

A patient with stroke is exhibiting spasticity in their leg. The therapist, utilizing the Brunnstrom approach, would most appropriately focus on:

A

Ignoring the spasticity and focusing on other movements

B

Increasing the passive resistance to movement

C

Applying direct pressure to the muscles to reduce tone

D

Facilitating movements that oppose the spasticity

Q81

A 6-year-old presents with significant pes planus. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial physiotherapy intervention?

A

Progressive resistance stretching and strengthening of the intrinsic foot muscles.

B

Focusing solely on heel cord lengthening techniques.

C

Immediate application of a rigid foot orthosis for prolonged periods.

D

Administering pain medication before commencing any intervention.

Q82

A patient with chronic back pain reports that their pain is exacerbated by prolonged sitting. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to address this?

A

High-impact exercise

B

Ergonomic assessment and postural correction advice

C

Prolonged bed rest

D

Manual therapy focusing on lumbar spine mobilization

Q83

Which of the following best describes the ethical principle of 'non-maleficence'?

A

Ensure equitable access to care.

B

Respect patient autonomy.

C

Promote patient well-being.

D

Do no harm.

Q84

When assessing a patient with suspected peripheral neuropathy, which neurological examination finding would be MOST indicative of significant axonal degeneration?

A

Normal proprioception testing.

B

Reduced deep tendon reflexes in the lower limbs.

C

Absent vibration sensation in the feet.

D

Increased sensitivity to light touch.

Q85

A patient expresses a desire to compete despite significant pain. Which psychological intervention would be MOST appropriate to support this decision?

A

Ignoring the patient's concerns.

B

Directly telling the patient to stop competing.

C

Pain suppression medication.

D

Values clarification.

Q86

A physiotherapist is conducting a home visit for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. What is the MOST important initial step?

A

Measuring the patient's grip strength using a dynamometer.

B

Providing detailed information about the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis.

C

Immediately prescribing a course of anti-inflammatory medication.

D

Assessing the patient's functional limitations within their own environment.

Q87

A patient with restrictive lung disease exhibits a prolonged inspiratory phase. Which physiotherapy technique would be MOST beneficial in addressing this?

A

Focusing solely on increasing respiratory rate.

B

Techniques to improve lung expansion

C

Utilizing only postural drainage techniques.

D

Implementing forceful expiration maneuvers.

Q88

A patient with an upper motor neuron lesion following a stroke demonstrates significant spasticity in the affected limb. Which physiotherapy intervention would be MOST appropriate to initially address this spasticity?

A

Complete immobilization of the affected limb.

B

Gentle stretching and range-of-motion exercises incorporating active muscle contraction.

C

Passive range-of-motion exercises performed alone.

D

Heavy resistance training to build muscle mass.

Q89

When evaluating a patient with ataxia, the ability to accurately detect subtle changes in body position is most directly related to:

A

Extremity coordination

B

Vestibular function

C

Proprioception

D

Balance strategies

Q90

A patient's prosthetic limb is causing discomfort during prolonged standing. The most appropriate initial action is:

A

Ignoring the discomfort and continuing with normal daily activities.

B

Increasing the patient's fluid intake.

C

Assessment of the prosthetic socket and its impact on lower limb alignment.

D

Applying heat to the affected area.

Q91

Which of the following is a key clinical feature frequently observed in patients with a right parietal stroke?

A

Impaired proprioception.

B

Reduced muscle strength.

C

Difficulty with constructional tasks.

D

Increased sensitivity to pain.

Q92

A 30-year-old patient presents with acute onset of confusion, neck stiffness, and photophobia following a recent head injury. Initial assessment reveals Kernig's sign is positive. The MOST appropriate initial physiotherapy intervention should focus on:

A

Performing advanced neurological assessments including detailed motor and sensory testing.

B

Implementing a strict bed rest protocol with prolonged immobilization.

C

Immediately initiating aggressive deep tissue massage to reduce muscle guarding.

D

Maintaining airway, ensuring adequate hydration, and gentle passive range of motion exercises to minimize further brain trauma.

Q93

Which of the following factors would MOST significantly influence the choice of current frequency in pain management?

A

The therapist's personal preference

B

The patient's preferred color

C

The specific underlying pain mechanism (e.g., neuropathic, inflammatory).

D

The current cost of the equipment

Q94

A patient with a history of chronic back pain reports that activities that previously caused pain no longer do. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A

Immediate initiation of a high-intensity exercise program.

B

Prescription of a strong opioid analgesic.

C

Gradual return to functional activities under supervision.

D

Strict bed rest until all pain is eliminated.

Q95

A hospitalized patient receiving intravenous fluids and loop diuretics requires close monitoring of serum electrolytes. Which electrolyte imbalance poses the greatest immediate risk of life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias and therefore demands the most vigilant monitoring?

A

Potassium imbalance

B

Magnesium imbalance

C

Calcium imbalance

D

Sodium imbalance

Q96

Which of the following bones is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Humerus

B

Femur

C

Scapula

D

Skull

Q97

A patient with a recent stroke exhibits spasticity in the left lower limb. Which physiological explanation is MOST relevant to understanding this presentation?

A

Increased sensitivity of lower motor neuron receptors.

B

Reduced sympathetic vasoconstriction.

C

Disinhibition of upper motor neuron pathways.

D

Decreased levels of dopamine.

Q98

A patient with a history of myopathy presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. The physiotherapy assessment should primarily evaluate:

A

Focusing solely on pain management.

B

Increased muscle mass through resistance training.

C

Muscle strength, endurance, and functional performance, considering the patient's limitations and functional goals.

D

Ignoring sensory deficits to expedite motor rehabilitation.

Q99

A patient with a history of stroke demonstrates impaired proprioception. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to address this?

A

Exercises solely focused on improving muscle strength.

B

Static postural exercises with a stable surface.

C

Visual stabilization exercises.

D

Balance exercises incorporating unstable surfaces and dynamic movements.

Q100

A patient with a spinal cord injury is prescribed a wheelchair. Which of the following is the MOST crucial aspect of the prescription to ensure optimal pressure sore prevention?

A

Appropriate cushion selection and proper seating adjustments.

B

The type of wheelchair frame material.

C

The patient's weight and height.

D

The speed at which the patient moves.

Q101

The anatomical term 'inferior' describes a position relative to:

A

The patient's chest

B

The patient's feet

C

The patient's head

D

The patient's abdomen

Q102

What is the significance of 'epigenetic modifications' in the context of neuroplasticity?

A

Permanent alterations to the DNA sequence.

B

The isolation of the patient from external stimuli.

C

The complete destruction of neural pathways.

D

Changes in gene expression that can be influenced by experience and contribute to long-term neural adaptations.

Q103

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of early physiotherapy intervention in a patient diagnosed with Bells Palsy?

A

Maintaining eyelid closure to prevent corneal damage.

B

Reducing inflammation through prolonged heat application.

C

Stimulating facial nerve regeneration with electrical stimulation.

D

Promoting facial muscle hypertrophy.

Q104

Which of the following best describes the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying the persistent impairments often observed in patients with chronic hemiparesis after stroke?

A

Increased muscle mass in the affected limb.

B

Decreased cerebral blood flow to the affected hemisphere.

C

Disinhibition of postural reflexes due to disruption of the corticospinal pathway.

D

Impaired proprioceptive feedback from the affected limb.

Q105

In a patient with peripheral vascular disease, why is it important to avoid prolonged sitting?

A

To increase muscle mass in the lower extremities.

B

To reduce inflammation in the affected area.

C

To maintain adequate blood flow to the affected limb.

D

To promote deep vein thrombosis.

Q106

When prescribing 'resisted exercises', the resistance should primarily be provided by:

A

External resistance (e.g., resistance bands, weights).

B

The patient's breathing rate.

C

The therapist providing manual resistance.

D

The patient's own body weight.

Q107

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the role of biofilms in chronic wound management?

A

They represent a significant barrier to antibiotic penetration and healing

B

Biofilms are only formed by Gram-positive bacteria

C

Biofilms always indicate a complete absence of infection

D

Biofilms are composed solely of dead bacterial cells

Q108

A patient with a BKA demonstrates difficulty with gait. The MOST relevant assessment parameter to address this is:

A

The patient's range of motion in the unaffected limb.

B

Stride length and symmetry.

C

The patient's reported pain level.

D

The patient's height.

Q109

A patient with chronic lower back pain reports significant anxiety and fear related to movement. Which of the following initial interventions would be MOST appropriate, considering psychological factors?

A

Prescribing strong analgesics to eliminate pain quickly.

B

Gradual mobilization with patient-centered education on pain management strategies.

C

Immediate application of heat packs to reduce muscle spasm.

D

Referral to a psychiatrist for pharmacological intervention only.

Q110

Which of the following best describes the role of manual therapy techniques (e.g., mobilization) in the treatment of cervical spondylosis?

A

To permanently correct spinal malalignment.

B

To directly reduce pain signals originating from the joint.

C

To increase joint stiffness and inflammation.

D

To restore joint mobility and reduce muscle guarding.

Q111

What is the primary rationale for using a foam roller as part of a rehabilitation program for a patient with lower back pain?

A

To increase muscle strength and power.

B

To facilitate muscle relaxation and improve tissue mobility.

C

To stimulate nerve endings for pain relief.

D

To directly address postural imbalances.

Q112

A patient with lower back pain reports a NPRS score of 7 and a PSFS score of 5. What is the MOST important initial step in your assessment?

A

Prescribing a course of pain medication.

B

A thorough assessment of posture and movement patterns.

C

Immediate referral to a specialist.

D

Focusing solely on palpating the lumbar spine.

Q113

When managing a patient with a bone tumor, what is the primary rationale behind prescribing gentle joint mobilization techniques?

A

To directly reduce the tumor's size.

B

To stimulate angiogenesis and promote tumor growth.

C

To maintain joint range of motion and prevent stiffness.

D

To induce inflammation around the tumor.

Q114

Which of the following is a primary goal of physiotherapy management in patients with Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

To reduce pain transmission and improve functional activities.

B

To completely restore nerve regeneration.

C

To induce paralysis of the trigeminal nerve.

D

To increase muscle strength in the facial muscles.

Q115

A patient presents with a persistent lower back pain following a motor vehicle accident. Initial assessment reveals localized tenderness to palpation over the L4-L5 vertebral segments and limited range of motion. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial microbiological investigation to rule out vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

Skin swab of the affected area

B

MRI of the lumbar spine

C

Urinalysis

D

Blood culture

Q116

Which of the following best describes the primary goal of constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) in a child with hemiplegic cerebral palsy?

A

To increase use of the affected limb during functional tasks by restraining the less-affected limb

B

To teach the child complex motor skills independently

C

To provide extensive sensory input to calm the child

D

To limit all movement to prevent maladaptive behaviors

Q117

A patient with a diagnosis of stroke presents with hemiparesis. Which of the following postural interventions is MOST crucial in the initial stages of rehabilitation?

A

Encouraging the patient to perform independent weight-bearing activities.

B

Utilizing a lateral trunk support to improve balance.

C

Applying gentle passive stretches to the affected limb.

D

Maintaining a midline position to prevent lateral trunk lean.

Q118

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of 'goal setting' in sports psychology?

A

Establishing specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound goals.

B

Ignoring the patient's preferences and values.

C

Setting vague and aspirational goals.

D

Focusing solely on the patient's limitations.

Q119

A patient with a disability expresses feelings of isolation and low self-esteem. Which approach would be MOST appropriate from a physiotherapy perspective?

A

Imposing unrealistic goals to motivate the patient.

B

Integrating physiotherapy interventions with a focus on functional independence, social participation, and building self-confidence.

C

Avoiding discussions about feelings and emotional well-being.

D

Primarily focusing on physical rehabilitation without considering psychological factors.

Q120

Which of the following is a key component of health promotion related to reducing the risk of cardiovascular diseases?

A

Ignoring the patient's lifestyle factors.

B

Promoting increased consumption of processed foods.

C

Encouraging regular physical activity and adopting a heart-healthy diet.

D

Strictly limiting all forms of social interaction.

Q121

A patient with ataxia is struggling to accurately judge distances while reaching. This suggests a potential impairment in:

A

Vestibular function.

B

Extremity coordination.

C

Proprioception.

D

Balance strategies.

Q122

A patient with spina bifida presents with limited range of motion in the affected limb. The most appropriate initial intervention should prioritize:

A

Applying heat to increase muscle flexibility.

B

Encouraging the patient to attempt full range of motion independently.

C

Maintaining joint mobility through gentle range of motion exercises.

D

Using passive stretching techniques aggressively.

Q123

A patient with a traumatic brain injury exhibits impaired visual-vestibular integration. Which assessment would be most helpful in determining the specific nature of this impairment?

A

A simple near-far pointing test.

B

A standard range of motion assessment of the neck.

C

A subjective visual analogue scale for dizziness.

D

Video Head Impulse Test (vHIT).

Q124

Which of the following best describes the anatomical location of the obturator membrane?

A

It forms the anterior boundary of the lesser sciatic foramen.

B

It separates the obturator quadratus muscles from the obturator canal.

C

It is a fibrous sheath surrounding the hip joint.

D

It forms the posterior wall of the acetabulum.

Q125

A frail elderly patient presents with acute confusion consistent with suspected delirium, which often signals underlying physiologic deterioration. Continuous vital sign monitoring is initiated. Which parameter is generally the EARLIEST vital sign to become abnormal and is therefore the MOST important to monitor continuously for early detection of clinical deterioration in this patient?

A

Heart rate variability.

B

Respiratory rate.

C

Body temperature.

D

Blood pressure.

Q126

What is the MOST important consideration when positioning a patient with heart failure who is experiencing orthopnea?

A

Applying pressure to the abdomen to reduce cardiac output

B

Maintaining a supine position to minimize respiratory effort

C

Elevating the head and upper body to reduce venous return

D

Encouraging deep, labored breathing

Q127

A 4-year-old child with spastic diplegia is undergoing physiotherapy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate goal to set for the initial phase of treatment?

A

Improve active range of motion in the affected limbs

B

Maintaining the child in a fixed, supported position

C

Immediate correction of postural alignment

D

Focusing on strengthening the entire lower limb musculature

Q128

A patient with Parkinsonism demonstrates freezing of gait. Which intervention would be MOST appropriate to break this episode?

A

Administering a medication known for its rapid tremor-reducing effects.

B

Employing external cues and rhythmic auditory or visual stimuli.

C

Encouraging the patient to increase their walking speed.

D

Instructing the patient to perform slow, deliberate movements.

Q129

Which of the following is a critical component of managing a patient with a fractured pelvis?

A

Focusing solely on pain management.

B

Promoting aggressive muscle strengthening exercises.

C

Encouraging immediate, full weight-bearing.

D

Careful monitoring for signs of pelvic instability.

Q130

Which of the following clinical features would MOST strongly suggest a mononeuropathy?

A

Sensory loss affecting a specific cutaneous nerve distribution

B

Pain associated with nerve compression

C

Loss of fine motor control in the hands

D

Muscle weakness affecting the proximal limb muscles

Q131

A patient with Motor Neuron Disease exhibits dysarthria. What is the MOST appropriate physiotherapy intervention to address this?

A

Deep breathing exercises

B

Resistance training of the upper limb muscles

C

Speech exercises targeting articulatory movements

D

Passive range of motion exercises of the neck

Q132

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when designing a rehabilitation program for a woman with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A

Encouraging frequent, interrupted voiding.

B

Promoting adequate hydration and healthy bladder emptying habits.

C

Increasing dietary intake of dairy products.

D

Administering prophylactic antibiotics regularly.

Q133

A patient presents with chronic lower back pain and limited mobility. Initial assessment reveals elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels. Which metabolic pathway is MOST likely contributing to the patient's symptoms?

A

Muscle metabolism

B

Vitamin metabolism

C

Carbohydrate metabolism

D

Lipid metabolism

Q134

A patient with cerebellar dysfunction demonstrates difficulty initiating movements. What is the most appropriate initial physiotherapy approach?

A

Task-specific training to improve movement initiation.

B

Passive range of motion exercises.

C

Isometric muscle contractions.

D

Strictly limiting all voluntary movement.

Q135

Which of the following represents a key regulatory role of AMP (adenosine monophosphate) in cellular metabolism?

A

Stimulation of the Krebs cycle.

B

Enhancement of fatty acid synthesis.

C

Activation of glycolysis

D

Promotion of oxidative phosphorylation.

Q136

A patient with a disability expresses feelings of loss and grief. What is the MOST appropriate initial response from a physiotherapist?

A

Exploring the patient's emotional response and offering empathetic support.

B

Referring the patient to a psychiatrist without further assessment.

C

Immediately focusing on the patient's physical limitations and functional deficits.

D

Providing detailed information about the patient's condition and prognosis.

Q137

A patient expresses reluctance to participate in a rehabilitation program due to fear of re-injury. Which initial response is MOST effective?

A

Immediately dismissing the patient's fears as unfounded and urging them to proceed with the program.

B

Exploring the patient's specific fears and concerns, and collaboratively developing a safe and gradual progression plan.

C

Providing a lengthy lecture on the importance of adhering to the treatment plan.

D

Referring the patient to a psychologist without further assessment of their fears.

Q138

What is the key physiological difference between Type I and Type II muscle fibers?

A

There is no significant physiological difference between the two fiber types.

B

Type II fibers are exclusively involved in slow-twitch muscle contractions.

C

Type I fibers have a greater ability to generate force.

D

Type I fibers are primarily suited for endurance activities, while Type II fibers are optimized for short bursts of high-intensity activity.

Q139

What is the MOST important factor to consider when assessing a patient's response to a stretching exercise?

A

The therapist's visual assessment of muscle length

B

The patient's subjective report of comfort and lack of pain

C

The patient's heart rate

D

The length of the muscle being stretched

Q140

When assessing a child with a musculoskeletal injury, what is the primary goal of the initial physiotherapy treatment?

A

To quickly restore full range of motion

B

To encourage the child to return to full activity without restriction

C

To immediately begin strengthening exercises

D

To reduce pain and inflammation and protect the injured tissues

Q141

Which of the following best describes the role of a bone scan in the management of a patient with suspected spinal osteoarthritis?

A

Measurement of joint stiffness

B

Assessment of ligamentous laxity

C

Direct visualization of the articular cartilage

D

Assessment of metabolic activity within the bone

Q142

A 90-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with shortness of breath during exercise. What is the MOST appropriate initial physiotherapy intervention?

A

Breathing exercises and energy conservation techniques.

B

Ignoring the dyspnea and pushing the patient to complete the exercise.

C

High-intensity aerobic training to improve cardiovascular fitness.

D

Encouraging maximal exertion to build endurance.

Q143

A 13-year-old with a history of juvenile arthritis presents with reduced range of motion in the affected joint. The physiotherapy intervention should prioritize:

A

Aggressive stretching to increase flexibility immediately.

B

Ignoring the patient's reported pain levels during treatment sessions.

C

Applying heat to the joint before movement.

D

Maintaining joint mobility through regular range of motion exercises.

Q144

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T6 level demonstrates significant weakness in the abdominal muscles. Which physiological principle explains this impairment?

A

Loss of descending motor pathway control.

B

Decreased muscle blood flow.

C

Reduced nerve conduction velocity.

D

Increased muscle fatigue.

Q145

Which of the following is a key characteristic of the Roods approach?

A

Strictly passive movements to prevent further injury.

B

Emphasis on observing and responding to the patient's movement attempts.

C

Immediate forceful inhibition of all muscle activity.

D

Focusing on patient comfort above all other considerations.

Q146

Which intervention is typically avoided in the initial management of Trigeminal Neuralgia due to the potential for exacerbating pain?

A

Gentle facial massage.

B

Application of cold packs.

C

Aggressive manual therapy of the cervical spine.

D

Patient education regarding pain triggers.

Q147

When managing a patient with chronic osteoarthritis, which of the following interventions is MOST critical to address functional limitations?

A

Aggressive stretching exercises to improve joint flexibility.

B

Graded activity modification and patient education.

C

Focusing solely on pain reduction with manual therapy.

D

Prescribing a long-term, high-intensity exercise program.

Q148

The primary purpose of utilizing a prosthesis in a patient with a patellar instability involves:

A

Ignoring the patient's reported symptoms.

B

Maintaining patellar tracking and stability.

C

Directly addressing the patient's psychological distress.

D

Increasing patellar mobility at all costs.

Q149

A patient with a stroke exhibits difficulty with fine motor tasks. Which assessment tool would be MOST useful to evaluate this impairment?

A

A visual inspection of hand movements.

B

The Jebsen-Taylor Hand Function Test.

C

A simple grip strength test.

D

The Fugl-Meyer Assessment of Upper Extremity.

Q150

A patient with ataxia is attempting to reach for a cup of water. The therapist should focus on:

A

Integrating balance strategies with coordinated reaching movements.

B

Encouraging the patient to use a spoon instead.

C

Providing verbal cues to improve accuracy.

D

Restricting the patient's reach distance.

Q151

Within the CBR management cycle, 'response' primarily refers to:

A

The immediate actions taken during a disaster or emergency situation

B

Detailed assessment of individual needs

C

Long-term planning for disability prevention

D

Ongoing rehabilitation programs

Q152

What is the primary function of the Bohr effect?

A

The shift of hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen in response to increased hydrogen ion concentration.

B

The stimulation of muscle contraction.

C

The increase in oxygen diffusion across the muscle membrane.

D

The decrease in blood pH during exercise.

Q153

A patient with Hereditary Motor and Sensory Neuropathy (HMSN) demonstrates a significant decrease in vibration perception. This finding most strongly suggests:

A

Progressive axonal degeneration of sensory nerve fibers

B

A localized inflammatory response

C

Improved nerve conduction velocity

D

Increased sensitivity to touch

Q154

During the physiotherapy assessment of a patient with suspected cerebellar ataxia, which of the following tests is most specific for evaluating postural stability and cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Detailed examination of the gait cycle

B

Romberg test

C

Assessment of upper limb range of motion

D

Bruce protocol for cardiovascular fitness

Q155

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of maintaining neutral spinal alignment in patients with SCI?

A

To facilitate optimal muscle activation

B

To minimize further neurological damage

C

To improve cosmetic appearance

D

To reduce pain perception

Q156

A patient with osteoarthritis of the knee reports difficulty with stair climbing. Which of the following strategies would BEST address this specific functional limitation?

A

Recommending prolonged periods of rest to reduce pain.

B

Focusing solely on topical analgesics for pain relief.

C

Utilizing a stair climbing aid and incorporating strengthening exercises targeting the quadriceps and hamstrings.

D

Prescribing a high-intensity interval training program.

Q157

Which of the following best describes the function of carbohydrates in the body?

A

Energy source

B

Antibiotic agent

C

Structural component

D

Waste product

Q158

A patient with SCI demonstrates significant weakness in their quadriceps muscles. Which intervention would be MOST effective to improve muscle strength?

A

Frequent massage therapy to improve circulation.

B

Isometric contractions of the quadriceps muscles.

C

Passive stretching exercises to increase range of motion.

D

Progressive resistance training with appropriate load.

Q159

When assessing a patient with a shoulder impingement syndrome, which postural finding is MOST likely to be observed?

A

Neutral head position.

B

Protracted scapulae.

C

Forward head posture with rounded shoulders.

D

Increased thoracic kyphosis.

Q160

A patient with a recent rotator cuff tear presents with significant pain and weakness during abduction. Which of the following interventions is generally considered the MOST effective for promoting early functional recovery?

A

Isometric exercises targeting the rotator cuff muscles.

B

Immediate initiation of heavy resistance exercises.

C

Passive range of motion exercises with constant passive assistance.

D

Focusing solely on pain reduction with ice packs.

Q161

Which of the following is a key consideration when designing a physiotherapy program for a patient post-reconstruction following a crush injury?

A

Individualized goals based on the patient's functional limitations.

B

Prioritizing rapid muscle strengthening exercises.

C

Implementing a standardized protocol for all patients with similar injuries.

D

Focusing solely on achieving full range of motion in all joints.

Q162

Which of the following is the MOST important preventative measure in managing a patient with TB joints?

A

Applying cold packs continuously.

B

Ignoring the patient's reported pain.

C

Maintaining gentle active range of motion exercises.

D

Complete immobilization of the joint.

Q163

Which of the following is a critical consideration when designing a long-term physiotherapy plan for a patient with a benign bone tumor?

A

Implementing a static exercise program

B

Focusing solely on maximizing muscle mass

C

Regular monitoring of pain levels and functional status

D

Ignoring any signs of progressive functional decline

Q164

Which of the following is a potential long-term complication of prolonged bed rest in patients with intracranial tumors?

A

Enhanced bone density.

B

Decreased risk of pressure ulcers.

C

Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis.

D

Improved appetite and nutrient absorption.

Q165

Which of the following is a crucial consideration when designing a physiotherapy program for a patient with Parkinsonism?

A

Focusing exclusively on exercises that maximize muscle strength.

B

Ignoring the patient's cognitive abilities during treatment.

C

The patient's individual functional goals and priorities.

D

Implementing a standardized protocol for all patients with Parkinsonism.

Q166

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?

A

It primarily receives and processes signals from the baroreceptors.

B

It solely filters calcium ions to regulate heart rate.

C

It initiates the electrical impulse that drives the heart's rhythm.

D

It directly controls the rate of blood flow through the coronary arteries.

Q167

The concept of 'lactate threshold' primarily refers to:

A

The body's ability to tolerate prolonged physical exertion.

B

The maximum rate of oxygen consumption during exercise.

C

The point at which muscle glycogen is completely depleted.

D

The intensity at which lactate begins to accumulate significantly in the blood.

Q168

A patient with chronic rheumatic heart disease reports significant pain and limited mobility. Which intervention would be MOST aligned with a holistic approach to management?

A

Focus solely on optimizing cardiac function through medication.

B

Implement a comprehensive rehabilitation program incorporating exercise, pain management techniques, and patient education.

C

Prescribe strong analgesics to completely eliminate pain.

D

Advise the patient to avoid physical activity altogether.

Q169

A 68-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease presents with significant tremor and rigidity. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate as a first-line treatment strategy?

A

Focusing solely on strengthening exercises to improve muscle tone.

B

Task modification and adaptive equipment provision

C

Initiating high-intensity aerobic exercise without careful monitoring.

D

Prescribing a high dose of levodopa immediately to alleviate symptoms.

Q170

Following a stroke, a patient demonstrates impaired balance. Which assessment should be prioritized?

A

Administering a cognitive test.

B

Assessing range of motion in the ankles.

C

Static and dynamic balance assessments.

D

Measuring muscle strength in the legs.

Q171

Which of the following best explains the concept of 'oxygen debt' in the context of exercise?

A

The total amount of oxygen consumed during a single exercise session.

B

The accumulation of metabolic byproducts that require oxygen to be restored to homeostasis.

C

The immediate increase in heart rate and blood pressure during exercise.

D

The excess energy expenditure above resting metabolic rate.

Q172

During the assessment of a patient with ataxia, the observation of 'dysmetria' (inability to accurately judge distances) strongly suggests dysfunction in which area?

A

Peripheral Nervous System

B

Cerebellum

C

Spinal Cord

D

Vestibular system

Q173

During a task-specific training program for a patient with cerebellar ataxia, which approach should the therapist prioritize?

A

Exercises performed exclusively in a quiet, distraction-free environment

B

Complex, multi-joint movements introduced immediately

C

Simple, repetitive movements initially, with gradual progression toward more complex functional tasks

D

High-velocity movements to challenge the patient's coordination

Q174

Which of the following is a key component of a comprehensive physiotherapy management plan for a patient with a traumatic brain injury?

A

Implementing a fixed treatment protocol without individualized adjustments.

B

Focusing solely on addressing immediate pain complaints.

C

Ignoring the patient's reported symptoms and preferences.

D

Regular monitoring of functional outcomes and progression towards activity goals.

Q175

A 68-year-old patient presents with ataxia, dysarthria, and nystagmus following a stroke. Which of the following assessment findings would MOST strongly suggest cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Marked improvement in balance after pharmacological intervention.

B

Presence of truncal ataxia during Romberg testing.

C

Symmetrical weakness in the lower extremities.

D

Increased deep tendon reflexes throughout the limbs.

Q176

Which of the following factors MOST significantly impacts a patient's ability to successfully adopt a new health behavior?

A

The physiotherapist's level of expertise and experience.

B

The patient's perceived self-efficacy – their belief in their ability to successfully perform the behavior.

C

The cost of the intervention or treatment.

D

The presence of a strong social support network.

Q177

Which enzyme in the neuromuscular junction terminates the action of acetylcholine?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

B

Monoamine oxidase

C

Catechol-O-methyltransferase

D

Phosphodiesterase

Q178

Which structure in the nerve is directly responsible for the formation of the blood-nerve barrier?

A

Endoneurial capillary endothelial cells

B

Perineurial cells

C

Schwann cell myelin lamellae

D

Epineurial fibroblasts

Q179

Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of 'central sensitization'?

A

Increased excitability of dorsal horn neurons leading to amplified pain responses

B

Reduced peripheral nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination

C

Enhanced inhibitory interneuron activity in the spinal cord

D

Selective loss of A-delta fibers in chronic disease

Q180

In knee kinematics, the axis about which the tibia rotates relative to the femur during internal/external rotation is oriented in which plane?

A

Sagittal plane

B

Frontal plane

C

Transverse plane

D

Oblique plane

Q181

Which of the following is a dynamic postural cue used for assessment of forward head posture?

A

Observe neck position during seated forward bending

B

Measure cervical flexion on a ruler

C

Assess head position while standing with eyes closed

D

Perform a shoulder shrug test

Q182

What trend is observed in the respiratory quotient (RQ) during prolonged endurance exercise?

A

Decreases toward 0.7

B

Increases toward 1.0

C

Remains unchanged at 0.8

D

Fluctuates randomly

Q183

Which of the following electrotherapy currents is classified as a low-frequency current?

A

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)

B

Interferential Therapy (IFT)

C

Russian Current

D

High-frequency Diathermy

Q184

What energy flux density is typical for treating chronic tendinopathies with shockwave therapy?

A

0.1–0.3 mJ/mm2

B

0.5–0.7 mJ/mm2

C

1–1.5 mJ/mm2

D

2–2.5 mJ/mm2

Q185

In the treatment of chronic low back pain, which modality is considered first-line physical agent according to Nepal MPT curriculum?

A

Interferential therapy

B

Shortwave diathermy

C

Therapeutic ultrasound

D

Moist heat therapy

Q186

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for shortwave diathermy (SWD)?

A

Pregnancy (first trimester)

B

Metal implants in the treatment area

C

Pacemaker

D

Open wound

Q187

Which of the following resistive exercises is contraindicated in patients with uncontrolled hypertension?

A

Isometric hand grip at 30% MVC

B

Dynamic elbow flexion with light dumbbell

C

Wall sit at 90°

D

Seated calf raise with moderate load

Q188

What is the primary purpose of 'Active Cycle of Breathing Techniques' (ACBT) in pulmonary rehabilitation?

A

To increase the strength of the intercostal muscles

B

To provide a structured sequence of breathing to mobilize and evacuate secretions

C

To treat atelectasis through high-pressure oxygenation

D

To reduce the heart rate during acute dyspnea

Q189

Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for using spray and stretch technique on a trigger point?

A

Acute inflammation with swelling

B

Patient with cold intolerance

C

Presence of an active trigger point with restricted range of motion

D

Presence of a latent trigger point without pain

Q190

Which of the following is considered a red-flag sign that warrants immediate medical referral in a patient with acute low back pain?

A

Pain that improves with rest

B

Localized tenderness over the lumbar paraspinals

C

Unexplained weight loss and night pain

D

Pain that is mechanical and varies with activity

Q191

In the radiographic assessment of developmental dysplasia of the hip, a lateral center-edge angle (LCEA) of less than what value indicates dysplasia?

A

< 20 degrees

B

20-25 degrees

C

≥ 25 degrees

D

≥ 40 degrees

Q192

A 32-year-old patient with a recent radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop. Which splint design best maintains functional wrist position while allowing active finger extension?

A

Static dorsal wrist splint holding wrist at 20° extension and MCP joints in neutral

B

Dynamic wrist extension splint with elastic bands assisting wrist extension

C

Volarly based resting hand splint with wrist in 30° flexion

D

Circumferential thermoplastic splint immobilising wrist and forearm in neutral

Q193

In a patient with a complete T10 injury, which of the following is the most appropriate goal for bowel management to ensure social reintegration?

A

Total reliance on laxatives

B

Establishing a predictable bowel program

C

Permanent use of a colostomy

D

Avoiding all high-fiber foods

Q194

A key component of comprehensive TBI rehabilitation is:

A

Isolated strength training

B

Family education and counseling

C

High-intensity competitive sports

D

Pharmacological sedation

Q195

For a patient with restrictive lung disease such as Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF), which physiotherapy intervention is most indicated to improve ventilation and prevent atelectasis?

A

Postural drainage in Trendelenburg position

B

High-frequency chest wall oscillation

C

Deep breathing exercises with incentive spirometry

D

Forced expiratory maneuvers

Q196

Which time frame after an uncomplicated percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is generally considered safe to begin Phase II outpatient cardiac rehabilitation?

A

Within 24 hours

B

3-5 days

C

2-4 weeks

D

8-12 weeks

Q197

What is the characteristic difference between sarcopenia and cachexia?

A

Sarcopenia involves only fat loss, cachexia involves muscle loss

B

Cachexia is primarily driven by systemic inflammation and metabolic wasting

C

Sarcopenia only occurs in bedridden patients

D

Cachexia does not involve the loss of lean body mass

Q198

In a study aiming to identify risk factors associated with postoperative knee osteoarthritis after ACL reconstruction, the most suitable design is?

A

Case-control study

B

Cross-sectional study

C

Cohort study

D

Randomized controlled trial

Q199

Which of the following is the most appropriate statistical test to compare the proportion of patients who achieved 'full recovery' (Yes/No) between a treatment group and a control group?

A

Independent t-test

B

Pearson's correlation

C

Chi-square test

D

Spearman's rho

Q200

What level spinal cord injury leads one to be concerned about the risk of developing autonomic dysreflexia?

A

T4 and above

B

T6 and above

C

T8 and above

D

T10 and above