PCL Nursing Licensure Exam preparation SET 2

Q1

What is the significance of assessing a postpartum client's breastfeeding position?

A

To measure uterine blood volume.

B

To ensure proper latch and efficient milk transfer.

C

To assess fetal movement.

D

To evaluate the client's pain level.

Q2

Which of the following best describes the term 'orthopnea'?

A

Normal breathing pattern

B

Decreased tidal volume

C

Increased respiratory rate

D

Difficulty breathing when lying flat

Q3

A patient diagnosed with Hepatitis A is most likely transmitted through:

A

Sexual contact.

B

Respiratory droplets.

C

Ingestion of contaminated food or water.

D

Sharing contaminated needles.

Q4

When preparing a parenteral medication, the nurse should prioritize:

A

The patient's preference for the administration route.

B

The patient's age.

C

Accurate calculation of the dose.

D

The color of the medication solution.

Q5

Which of the following best describes a 'physical hazard' in a healthcare setting?

A

Exposure to infectious agents (Biological hazard)

B

The use of hazardous chemicals (Chemical hazard)

C

The presence of electrical equipment (Physical hazard)

D

A trip or fall risk (Physical hazard)

Q6

A patient is exhibiting signs of agitation. Which intervention is the MOST appropriate initial step?

A

Administering a strong sedative

B

Offering the patient a beverage

C

Restricting the patient's movement

D

Using side rails

Q7

A patient with a diagnosis of Bronchiectasis is experiencing increasing dyspnea. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to implement?

A

Encourage frequent coughing and deep breathing exercises.

B

Restrict fluid intake to decrease mucus production.

C

Administer systemic corticosteroids.

D

Apply a warm compress to the affected area.

Q8

A fetal heart rate of 160 bpm would most likely be assessed for signs of:

A

Maternal anxiety

B

Normal fetal development

C

Fetal distress

D

Hypertrophy of the fetal heart

Q9

Which of the following is a key principle when bandaging a wound?

A

Apply excessive pressure to maximize wound closure.

B

Apply a bandage that is too tight, restricting circulation.

C

Maintain a snug but comfortable bandage.

D

Use a loose bandage to allow for swelling.

Q10

A patient with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) is experiencing increased difficulty swallowing. What is the initial nursing intervention?

A

Encourage frequent sips of water.

B

Administer a thick liquid diet.

C

Restrict fluid intake to prevent aspiration.

D

Position the patient in a high-Fowler's position.

Q11

At 6 months, a baby is babbling. What does this primarily represent?

A

Early stages of language development.

B

A response to environmental stimuli.

C

A sign of respiratory distress.

D

An indication of teething pain.

Q12

What is the most important factor to assess when determining the need for an episiotomy?

A

The gestational age of the fetus.

B

The width of the pelvic floor.

C

The baby's position.

D

The mother's pain level.

Q13

Which of the following is a key consideration when communicating with a parent regarding their child's health?

A

Assuming the parent has no prior knowledge.

B

Using medical jargon to ensure accuracy.

C

Using age-appropriate language.

D

Providing only written information.

Q14

What is the typical focus of care for a newborn infant?

A

Performing detailed physical examinations.

B

Scheduling follow-up appointments with specialists.

C

Administering vaccinations immediately.

D

Maintaining vital signs and providing initial comfort.

Q15

Which of the following best describes the role of rehabilitation in cancer care?

A

To prevent infection during treatment.

B

To administer chemotherapy drugs.

C

To restore physical, cognitive, and emotional function.

D

To provide palliative care only.

Q16

A patient presents with a blood pressure reading of 160/95 mmHg. Which medication is MOST appropriate as a first-line treatment for hypertension in an otherwise healthy adult, according to current ACC/AHA guidelines?

A

Lisinopril

B

Hydrochlorothiazide

C

Amlodipine

D

Losartan

Q17

A patient with a suspected spinal fracture reports numbness and tingling in their feet. What is the *primary* nursing concern?

A

Risk of Spinal Cord Injury

B

Risk of Infection

C

Risk of Pressure Ulcers

D

Risk of Deep Vein Thrombosis

Q18

Which of the following findings would *most* strongly suggest a nerve compression injury?

A

Symmetrical weakness in the lower extremities.

B

Positive straight leg raise test.

C

Localized pain at the lumbar spine.

D

Increased range of motion in the affected joint.

Q19

What are the typical phases of the bacterial growth cycle?

A

Lag, Exponential (Log), Stationary, Decline (Death)

B

Random, Constant, Steady, Fluctuating

C

Lag, Exponential, Stationary, Exponential

D

Adherence, Exponential, Stationary, Prolonged

Q20

A midwife is assisting with a breech birth. What is the *most* important consideration regarding fetal positioning?

A

Maximizing maternal comfort during the procedure.

B

Delaying intervention until the fetal heart rate deteriorates.

C

Maintaining optimal fetal alignment for delivery.

D

Strictly adhering to the standard breech birth protocol.

Q21

What does 'autonomy' mean in the context of patient care?

A

The patient's right to make their own decisions about their healthcare.

B

The physician's authority to prescribe medications.

C

The nurse's control over the patient's care.

D

The hospital's decision-making process.

Q22

A patient undergoing surgery requires pre-operative analgesia. Which of the following is the MOST important element of the pre-operative assessment?

A

Reviewing the patient's medical history for relevant comorbidities and pain history.

B

Administering the prescribed analgesia prior to the procedure.

C

A thorough pain assessment.

D

Confirming the patient's allergies.

Q23

Which of the following is a key responsibility of the recovery nurse?

A

Performing routine surgical procedures.

B

Monitoring the patient's recovery from anesthesia.

C

Ordering laboratory tests.

D

Administering intravenous fluids.

Q24

A patient with a cardiac condition requires a DASH diet. What is the primary focus of this dietary approach?

A

Renal diet

B

High-protein diet

C

Diabetic diet

D

Cardiac diet-DASH

Q25

What is the primary role of Erythropoietin?

A

Regulates white blood cell count.

B

Stimulates the production of red blood cells.

C

Controls platelet aggregation.

D

Promotes clotting.

Q26

A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with mumps. What is the nurse's PRIMARY focus regarding this patient?

A

Encouraging the child to drink plenty of fluids.

B

Preventing the spread of the virus to other individuals.

C

Administering pain medication for discomfort.

D

Providing a quiet, darkened room for rest.

Q27

When educating parents about the management of a child with otitis media, the nurse emphasizes the importance of:

A

Frequent application of warm compresses.

B

Giving the child honey for sore throat.

C

Avoiding strenuous activity.

D

Complete antibiotic course, as prescribed.

Q28

A conscious patient with symptomatic hypoglycemia (shaking, diaphoresis) is able to swallow. Which action is the immediate best practice?

A

Administer 15-20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., glucose tablets, juice).

B

Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.

C

Initiate cardiac monitoring.

D

Encourage a high-fat meal.

Q29

A patient diagnosed with a viral infection is exhibiting signs of dehydration. What is the MOST appropriate nursing action?

A

Restrict fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.

B

Encourage oral fluid intake only.

C

Apply cool compresses to the patient's skin.

D

Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.

Q30

A patient with Diabetes Insipidus is experiencing severe dehydration. Which intervention is MOST critical in the immediate management of this patient?

A

Initiation of cardiac monitoring.

B

Administration of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

C

Fluid replacement with hypotonic solutions.

D

Insertion of a nasogastric tube for nutritional support.

Q31

What is the primary focus of nursing care for a middle-aged adult?

A

Providing care for newborns.

B

Managing pediatric illnesses.

C

Managing age-related physiological changes and preventing chronic diseases.

D

Treating acute infections.

Q32

What is the primary sign of Rh incompatibility in a pregnant woman?

A

Fever

B

Increased blood pressure

C

Elevated white blood cell count

D

Positive antibody response

Q33

Which of the following conditions can cause jaundice during pregnancy?

A

Malaria

B

TORCH infection

C

Diabetes

D

Cardiac disease

Q34

A patient is exhibiting signs of prolonged immobility. What is the nurse's *first* action?

A

Encourage ambulation

B

Increase fluid intake

C

Assess for pressure ulcers

D

Administer pain medication

Q35

What is the primary reason for monitoring sewage flow?

A

To ensure adequate sanitation infrastructure capacity.

B

To assess the quality of drinking water.

C

To determine the population density.

D

To track the prevalence of infectious diseases.

Q36

A patient diagnosed with hydrocephaly requires which intervention to prevent further complications?

A

Regular monitoring of intracranial pressure.

B

Promoting independent ambulation.

C

Administering high-calorie diet.

D

Encouraging frequent physical activity.

Q37

What is the primary goal of collecting a midstream urine sample?

A

To obtain a sample free from contamination.

B

To assess the patient's bladder capacity.

C

To measure the patient's hydration level.

D

To determine the patient's overall health status.

Q38

What is the primary purpose of monitoring a patient's vital signs (temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure) during radiotherapy treatment?

A

To accurately measure radiation exposure levels.

B

To determine the optimal dosage of radiation.

C

To assess the patient's response to the treatment and detect any adverse effects.

D

To track the patient's overall health status unrelated to the treatment.

Q39

A patient undergoing hormonal therapy reports hot flashes. Which intervention is typically recommended?

A

Recommend increasing fluid intake to flush out toxins.

B

Recommend non-hormonal medications or lifestyle modifications.

C

Prescribe estrogen replacement therapy without further evaluation.

D

Suggest the patient avoid all forms of physical activity.

Q40

Which of the following is the MOST effective initial intervention for a patient diagnosed with bacterial meningitis?

A

Encourage oral fluids for hydration

B

Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately

C

Administer antipyretics for fever control only

D

Monitor vital signs closely without intervention

Q41

A woman experiencing postpartum hemorrhage is hypotensive (BP 88/60 mmHg). What is the *initial* nursing intervention?

A

Administer uterotonic medications

B

Administer intravenous fluids

C

Insert a Foley catheter

D

Elevate the woman's legs

Q42

What is the typical range for a woman's temperature during the early postpartum period (within 24 hours of delivery)?

A

36.1°C - 37.2°C (97.0°F - 99.0°F)

B

39.4°C - 40.7°C (103.0°F - 102.3°F)

C

38.3°C - 39.2°C (101.0°F - 102.5°F)

D

37.5°C - 38.3°C (99.5°F - 101.0°F)

Q43

What is the MOST important factor to consider when ensuring adequate lighting to prevent falls?

A

Using colorful light bulbs to improve visibility.

B

Eliminating shadows and glare.

C

Positioning furniture to create obstacles.

D

Increasing the overall brightness of the room.

Q44

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of epidemiology?

A

Treatment of individual patients with infectious diseases.

B

Study of disease patterns in populations.

C

Administration of vaccines to prevent illness.

D

Development of new pharmaceutical drugs.

Q45

A patient reports a foreign body sensation in their eye. The nurse's FIRST action should be:

A

Applying a cold compress to reduce inflammation.

B

Prescribing topical antibiotics.

C

Immediately irrigating the eye with sterile saline.

D

Assess the patient's visual field and gently inquire about the nature of the sensation.

Q46

A patient presents with a fever and relative bradycardia. Which bacterial infection is most likely?

A

Typhoid

B

Leishmaniasis

C

Malaria

D

Dengue fever

Q47

A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and uterine contractions. Her cervix is closed. What is the immediate priority?

A

Immediately initiate induction of labor.

B

Administer Rho(D) immune globulin immediately.

C

Administer intravenous fluids and monitor vital signs.

D

Order a stat ultrasound to evaluate fetal viability.

Q48

A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension reports a headache and blurred vision. Which of the following is the MOST important initial action for the nurse to take?

A

Administer an over-the-counter pain reliever.

B

Advise the patient to increase their fluid intake.

C

Instruct the patient to rest in a dark room.

D

Measure the patient's blood pressure.

Q49

Which of the following is the BEST intervention to prevent falls in a patient with hypertension?

A

Limit the patient's fluid intake.

B

Administer a sedative medication.

C

Provide frequent toileting assistance.

D

Encourage the patient to lift heavy objects.

Q50

Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of oral contraceptives?

A

Increased cervical mucus production.

B

Promotion of uterine contractions.

C

Stimulation of sperm production.

D

Inhibition of ovulation.

Q51

A patient with a urinary catheter develops signs of bacteriuria. The nurse should immediately:

A

Increase fluid intake.

B

Encourage the patient to void frequently.

C

Administer antibiotics.

D

Notify the physician.

Q52

A woman is in the 3rd stage of labor. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and she is exhibiting signs of postpartum hemorrhage. What is the *initial* priority intervention?

A

Massive fluid administration to maintain blood volume.

B

Administering an oxytocin bolus.

C

Applying a warm compress to the perineum.

D

Immediately inserting a Foley catheter.

Q53

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is exhibiting disorganized thinking. Which intervention is MOST appropriate for the nurse to implement?

A

Attempt to redirect the patient's attention to a specific topic.

B

Engage the patient in rapid-fire questioning to assess their thought processes.

C

Speak loudly and clearly to ensure the patient understands instructions.

D

Maintain a calm and quiet environment to minimize stimulation.

Q54

What is the key element of respectful maternity care?

A

Prioritizing the midwife's professional judgment.

B

Maintaining a formal and detached demeanor.

C

Respecting the woman's rights and values.

D

Strict adherence to medical guidelines.

Q55

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of early intervention for a neonate diagnosed with Down Syndrome?

A

To minimize the impact of associated medical conditions.

B

To provide intensive physiotherapy.

C

To solely focus on cognitive stimulation.

D

To accelerate physical development.

Q56

Which of the following tests is MOST useful for visualizing the gallbladder and bile ducts directly?

A

Endoscopic Ultrasonography

B

Cholangiogram

C

Gastroscopy

D

Oral cholecystogram

Q57

Which of the following is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute cerebellar crisis?

A

Administering a high-protein diet

B

Maintain a quiet, dimly lit environment

C

Elevating the head of the bed to promote venous drainage

D

Encouraging frequent ambulation

Q58

A patient with Myasthenia Gravis experiences fluctuating muscle weakness. Which nursing intervention is MOST important to maintain?

A

Frequent monitoring of respiratory function

B

Encourage strenuous physical activity

C

Administer anticholinergic medications

D

Restrict fluid intake

Q59

What is the primary purpose of monitoring a patient's intake and output?

A

To assess fluid balance and identify potential dehydration or overhydration.

B

To calculate the patient's body weight.

C

To measure the patient's blood pressure.

D

To determine the patient's dietary preferences.

Q60

A pregnant woman reports experiencing intermittent lower abdominal pain. Which of the following assessments would the nurse prioritize?

A

Administer pain medication.

B

Perform a vaginal examination.

C

Order a complete blood count.

D

Assess fetal heart rate and movement.

Q61

When advocating for a patient with a mental illness, what is the MOST important consideration?

A

Respecting the patient's rights and promoting their self-determination.

B

Prioritizing the healthcare provider's opinions.

C

Assuming the patient lacks the capacity for informed decision-making.

D

Ignoring the patient's expressed preferences.

Q62

A patient with suspected Crohn's disease presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and fever. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial assessment finding to prioritize?

A

Temperature

B

Pain Scale Rating

C

Blood Pressure

D

Respiratory Rate

Q63

When performing a bathroom bath on an unconscious patient, what is the PRIMARY purpose of using lukewarm water?

A

To increase patient muscle tone.

B

To sterilize the patient's skin.

C

To rapidly reduce body temperature.

D

To minimize patient discomfort and promote relaxation.

Q64

A patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to implement FIRST?

A

Administer antiemetic medication

B

Assess the patient's level of consciousness

C

Offer the patient a bland diet

D

Elevate the head of the bed

Q65

When assessing a patient's environment for 'physical hazards', a nurse should primarily focus on:

A

The patient's preferred color scheme

B

The patient's preferred music genre

C

Potential tripping or slipping risks

D

The patient's dietary restrictions

Q66

When assessing a child's abdomen, which of the following is MOST important?

A

Measuring the child's abdominal circumference.

B

Palpating for tenderness and guarding.

C

Listening for bowel sounds only.

D

Ignoring any abdominal pain reported by the child.

Q67

A patient complains of persistent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the MOST important initial nursing action?

A

Offer the patient a cup of warm tea.

B

Assess the patient's abdominal pain and vital signs.

C

Administer antiemetic medication immediately.

D

Instruct the patient to follow a bland diet.

Q68

Which of the following best describes a nursing implication when administering an antidepressant?

A

Checking the patient's potassium levels.

B

Monitoring for signs of serotonin syndrome.

C

Educating the patient to avoid grapefruit juice.

D

Administering the medication with food to improve absorption.

Q69

A nurse is documenting a patient's assessment. Which of the following statements demonstrates accurate documentation?

A

Patient states they are feeling well.

B

Patient reports no pain.

C

Patient reports a pain level of 7/10.

D

Patient denies any discomfort.

Q70

What is the most important factor to consider when choosing between an enema and a rectal suppository for managing abdominal discomfort?

A

The patient's individual symptoms and tolerance.

B

The patient's age.

C

The availability of the product.

D

The cost of the medication.

Q71

Which of the following symptoms is MOST characteristic of hypopituitarism?

A

Growth stunting in children.

B

Increased appetite and weight gain.

C

Excessive sweating and heat intolerance.

D

Elevated blood sugar levels.

Q72

A patient experiencing excitement and violence is actively destroying property. The most appropriate intervention is:

A

To implement a physical barrier to prevent harm

B

To administer a sedative medication immediately

C

To offer the patient a distraction

D

To verbally challenge the patient's behavior

Q73

A patient is exhibiting signs of agitation. Which intervention should be considered LAST in managing this patient?

A

Administering an antipsychotic medication.

B

Verbal de-escalation and increased patient monitoring.

C

Chemical restraints (sedating medication).

D

Physical restraints (padded bed rails).

Q74

The term 'suboccipital' refers to:

A

The area at the base of the fetal skull.

B

The frontal region of the skull.

C

The parietal region of the skull.

D

The temporal region of the skull.

Q75

A patient undergoing cataract surgery requires pre-operative care. Which of the following is a crucial step in preparing the patient?

A

Measuring the patient's height and weight.

B

Administering antibiotics.

C

Pupillary dilation with ophthalmic drops.

D

Instructing the patient to avoid all food and fluids.

Q76

What is the primary difference between a stye and a chalazion?

A

A stye is an acute inflammatory condition, while a chalazion is a slow-growing, non-inflammatory nodule.

B

Both are located on the inner eyelid.

C

Both are caused by bacterial infection.

D

Both affect the cornea.

Q77

A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. Which patient position is most appropriate?

A

High Fowler's position

B

Dorsal recumbent position

C

Low Fowler's position (semi-upright)

D

Prone position

Q78

Which leadership approach is most likely to foster a sense of ownership and responsibility within a nursing team?

A

Democratic leadership

B

Autocratic leadership

C

Bureaucratic leadership

D

Charismatic leadership

Q79

A patient diagnosed with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) stage 3 is experiencing edema. Which intervention is MOST important for the nurse to implement?

A

Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.

B

Monitor fluid intake and output closely.

C

Increase protein intake to maintain muscle mass.

D

Encourage strenuous exercise to improve circulation.

Q80

Which of the following BEST describes the primary function of a disinfectant?

A

Replicates microorganisms for research

B

Kills microorganisms on inanimate surfaces

C

Promotes the growth of microorganisms

D

Prevents the growth of microorganisms

Q81

What temperature is used in an autoclave for sterilization?

A

90°C

B

120°C

C

212°C

D

37°C

Q82

The neonatal period is defined as:

A

From 3 months to 1 year of age

B

From 1 week to 6 weeks of age

C

From 1 month to 1 year of age

D

From birth to 4 weeks of age

Q83

A healthcare provider is administering vaccinations. Which vaccine is administered at birth?

A

The Salk vaccine

B

The DPT vaccine

C

The measles vaccine

D

The BCG vaccine

Q84

A nurse is assessing a patient's nutritional status. Which finding would indicate the need for further nutritional evaluation?

A

Unexplained weight loss.

B

Increased appetite.

C

Stable weight.

D

Normal weight.

Q85

Which of the following is a fundamental characteristic of the 'self-actualization' need according to Maslow's hierarchy?

A

The realization of one's full potential and striving for personal growth.

B

Ensuring physical safety and security.

C

Maintaining a stable and predictable routine.

D

Meeting basic survival requirements.

Q86

Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing cardiac arrest?

A

Monitor blood glucose levels

B

Initiate CPR

C

Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

D

Establish intravenous access

Q87

A patient experiencing hypoxic hypoxia at an altitude of 8,000 feet exhibits signs of cyanosis. Which vital sign should the nurse prioritize monitoring immediately?

A

Temperature

B

White Blood Cell Count

C

Oxygen Saturation

D

Blood Pressure

Q88

A sanitation department utilizes dry weather flow data. What is its primary application?

A

Environmental impact assessment.

B

Equipment maintenance scheduling.

C

Sewer network hydraulic modeling.

D

Resource allocation for sewage management.

Q89

A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being discharged. Which instruction is MOST important for the nurse to provide regarding preventing recurrence?

A

Wearing compression stockings during waking hours.

B

Maintaining adequate hydration and a balanced diet.

C

Early ambulation and leg elevation.

D

Avoiding prolonged periods of sitting or standing.

Q90

Which of the following BEST describes the replication cycle of a virus?

A

Attachment, penetration, synthesis, and release.

B

Absorption, digestion, and excretion.

C

Decomposition, oxidation, and reduction.

D

Metabolism, respiration, and circulation.

Q91

What is the primary purpose of a community diagnosis?

A

To focus solely on acute illnesses.

B

To provide individual medical treatment.

C

To prioritize the health of the youngest population.

D

To identify the health needs of an entire community.

Q92

Which of the following BEST describes the primary focus of epidemiology?

A

The study of disease patterns in populations.

B

The treatment of individual patients with specific illnesses.

C

The administration of vaccines to prevent infectious diseases.

D

The development of new medications for disease prevention.

Q93

A school nurse is assessing a 10-year-old student reporting frequent headaches. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial action?

A

Take a detailed history of the headaches, including onset, duration, and associated symptoms.

B

Refer the student directly to a neurologist.

C

Schedule a full neurological examination without further questioning.

D

Immediately administer ibuprofen.

Q94

A child diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease is experiencing constipation and abdominal distention. Which intervention is MOST critical in this situation?

A

Performing rectal irrigation or decompression with a rectal tube

B

Inserting a rectal thermometer

C

Providing a low-fiber diet

D

Initiating a bowel regimen with stimulant laxatives

Q95

Which of the following is a key component of managing a patient with a soft tissue injury?

A

Encouraging immediate return to full activity.

B

Immobilization and elevation of the injured area.

C

Applying heat packs to increase circulation.

D

Administering intravenous corticosteroids.

Q96

A patient taking a loop diuretic is exhibiting signs of hypokalemia. Which assessment finding is MOST indicative of this electrolyte imbalance?

A

Increased respiratory rate

B

Muscle weakness and cramps

C

Increased blood pressure

D

Decreased urine output

Q97

When providing jejunal feeding, a patient expresses significant anxiety and distress. The nurse's BEST initial response should be:

A

Immediately increase the feeding rate.

B

Explain the feeding process in detail.

C

Administer an anti-anxiety medication.

D

Explore the patient's feelings and concerns, offering reassurance and support.

Q98

A patient with a traumatic brain injury is struggling with cognitive deficits. What should the nurse implement to support this patient?

A

Avoid providing verbal cues or instructions.

B

Encourage the patient to engage in complex tasks to stimulate brain activity.

C

Restrict the patient's activities to minimize cognitive demands.

D

Implement strategies to improve attention and concentration.

Q99

What is the primary purpose of using suction with a nasogastric tube?

A

To measure gastric pH levels.

B

To administer medications directly into the stomach.

C

To increase gastric motility.

D

To prevent aspiration of gastric contents.

Q100

A nurse is drafting a letter of resignation. Which element is MOST crucial for professional correspondence?

A

A polite and formal tone.

B

A request for a personal favor from colleagues.

C

An overly emotional expression of dissatisfaction.

D

A detailed account of all grievances during employment.

Q101

A patient with a history of falls is admitted. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A

Use of side rails

B

Application of physical restraints

C

Moving the patient to a private room

D

Immediate implementation of a fall risk assessment

Q102

Which vital sign is MOST critical to monitor closely in a patient receiving chemotherapy?

A

Blood pressure

B

Respiratory rate

C

Temperature

D

Heart rate

Q103

A patient with hypothyroidism reports experiencing hair loss. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

A

Assess dietary intake of iron and biotin.

B

Prescribe a topical corticosteroid.

C

Recommend a high-protein diet.

D

Administer a systemic antifungal medication.

Q104

A patient is assessed with an IQ of 130. What is the MOST likely implication for their learning potential?

A

They will be unable to grasp complex concepts.

B

They will likely learn quickly and retain information effectively.

C

They will require extensive repetition and reinforcement.

D

They will be resistant to new information.

Q105

A nurse notes that the fetal umbilical cord is wrapped tightly around the fetal neck. This is termed:

A

Placental abruption.

B

Umbilical cord prolapse.

C

Fetal distress.

D

Nuchal cord.

Q106

A patient with suspected biliary disease is scheduled for an oral cholecystogram. Which of the following is the MOST important nursing action prior to the procedure?

A

Instruct the patient to fast for 8-12 hours prior to the examination.

B

Administer the patient's usual medications as prescribed.

C

Encourage the patient to drink clear fluids throughout the procedure.

D

Assess the patient's allergies to iodine or contrast agents.

Q107

A patient is preparing for an ERCP. What is the primary purpose of this procedure?

A

To visualize and treat abnormalities within the bile ducts and pancreatic duct.

B

To assess liver function through blood samples.

C

To remove stones from the small intestine.

D

To measure the size of the gallbladder.

Q108

A patient's liver function tests show elevated AST and ALT levels. What does this typically indicate?

A

Decreased blood flow to the liver.

B

Liver cell damage or inflammation.

C

Normal liver function.

D

Increased bile production.

Q109

Which route of administration is typically used for the measles vaccine?

A

Subcutaneously

B

Intramuscular

C

Oral

D

Intravenous

Q110

Which of the following BEST describes the onset of the first stage of labor?

A

Fetal descent.

B

Release of oxytocin.

C

Increased vaginal bleeding.

D

Onset of regular contractions

Q111

During the second stage of labor, an episiotomy is indicated. What is the *primary* goal of performing an episiotomy?

A

To reduce fetal heart rate variability

B

To minimize maternal bleeding

C

To facilitate fetal delivery

D

To prevent perineal tearing

Q112

What is the primary goal of the circulating nurse during the preoperative phase?

A

To provide emotional support to the patient.

B

To perform routine patient assessments.

C

To manage the surgical team's schedule.

D

To facilitate a smooth and safe surgical procedure.

Q113

A patient expresses feelings of isolation and loneliness following a hospital admission. According to best practice, the initial nursing intervention should be:

A

To provide a detailed explanation of the patient's diagnosis and treatment plan.

B

To immediately schedule a consultation with a psychiatrist.

C

To actively listen to the patient's concerns and offer empathetic support.

D

To instruct the patient to engage in solitary activities to manage their emotions.

Q114

Which of the following is a key component of proper foot care for a patient?

A

Applying a thick layer of petroleum jelly to the feet daily.

B

Cutting the patient's toenails to a sharp point.

C

Checking for signs of infection and dryness.

D

Ignoring any complaints of pain or discomfort.

Q115

What is the primary purpose of back care during patient hygiene?

A

To administer medication to the patient's back.

B

To prevent skin breakdown and pressure injuries.

C

To provide a relaxing massage for the patient.

D

To assess the patient's muscle strength.

Q116

A patient in an unconscious state has developed a pressure ulcer on their coccyx. What is the MOST important nursing action?

A

Administer a sedative to reduce movement

B

Apply a topical antibiotic ointment

C

Elevate the patient's legs

D

Assess and document the size and stage of the ulcer

Q117

A patient presents with hives, itching, and swelling of the face, lips, and tongue following exposure to a new medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Antibody Deficiency

B

Cellular Immunity Response

C

Hypersensitivity Reaction

D

Viral Infection

Q118

A patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension reports a headache and blurred vision. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial action for the nurse to take?

A

Instruct the patient to increase their fluid intake.

B

Immediately administer a diuretic to lower blood pressure.

C

Measure the patient's blood pressure and assess their vital signs.

D

Administer a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief.

Q119

A patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

A

Assess the patient's level of consciousness and airway.

B

Administer intravenous fluids.

C

Elevate the patient's legs.

D

Administer an anti-anxiety medication.

Q120

Maintaining the correct pressure within the vitreous humor is crucial for:

A

Protecting against UV radiation.

B

Enhancing visual acuity.

C

Supporting eye structure.

D

Regulating tear production.

Q121

What is the primary goal of managing nephrotic syndrome in a child?

A

Reduce proteinuria and minimize edema.

B

Increase dietary potassium intake.

C

Promote rapid weight gain.

D

Administer intravenous antibiotics.

Q122

A patient is in the 'recovery' phase of a crisis. What is the primary nursing goal?

A

Focusing solely on preventing future crises.

B

Continuing intensive crisis intervention techniques.

C

Supporting the patient's return to normalcy and promoting adaptive coping mechanisms.

D

Avoiding all stressful situations.

Q123

What is the primary purpose of using normal saline for urinary catheter irrigation?

A

Increasing urine flow rate.

B

Preventing catheter blockage and irritation.

C

Decreasing catheter sensitivity.

D

Treating urinary tract infections.

Q124

A patient with a suspected herniated disc reports numbness and tingling in the lower extremities. The nurse should anticipate which intervention to implement FIRST?

A

Administer Pain Medication

B

Apply a Cold Compress

C

Elevate the Affected Limb

D

Maintain Patient in a Position of Comfort

Q125

A patient with a suspected vertebral fracture is experiencing hypotension. The nurse should immediately assess for:

A

Skin Color

B

Neurovascular Status

C

Respiratory Effort

D

Cardiac Rhythm

Q126

Norplant is typically unavailable in outreach clinics. Why?

A

It requires specialized medical training.

B

It is ineffective for long-term contraception.

C

It is too expensive.

D

It is not distributed due to its method of delivery.

Q127

What does 'nosocomial' mean in the context of infection control?

A

An infection caused by a viral agent.

B

An infection present at birth.

C

An infection acquired in a hospital setting.

D

An infection transmitted through the community.

Q128

A nurse is calculating the dose of medication for a patient with a creatinine clearance of 50 mL/min. What is the most appropriate adjustment to consider?

A

Increase the dose by 25% to compensate for decreased renal function.

B

Reduce the dose by 25% to account for decreased renal function.

C

Maintain the original dose as renal function does not significantly affect drug elimination.

D

Double the dose to ensure adequate therapeutic levels.

Q129

What is the primary definition of a 'teratogenic effect' in the context of pharmacology?

A

A drug's effect on a patient's mood.

B

A drug's ability to quickly eliminate from the body.

C

A drug's harmful impact on a fetus, causing developmental abnormalities.

D

A drug's interaction with another medication.

Q130

HbA1C provides a measure of:

A

Blood glucose level at a single point in time.

B

The patient's response to a specific carbohydrate load.

C

The patient's insulin sensitivity.

D

Average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.

Q131

A patient presents with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 after a motor vehicle accident. Which vital sign should the nurse prioritize assessing immediately?

A

Respiratory Rate

B

Temperature

C

Blood Pressure

D

Pain Level

Q132

Which of the following is a key component of interpreting a partograph?

A

Measuring fetal weight.

B

Tracking cervical dilation and station.

C

Assessing fetal reflexes.

D

Monitoring maternal blood pressure.

Q133

A nurse is assisting with the 'direct action' phase of disaster management. Which of the following tasks is typically included?

A

Providing immediate medical care to casualties

B

Developing long-term recovery strategies

C

Conducting psychological evaluations

D

Managing hospital finances

Q134

A school nurse is documenting a home visit. What is the most important element to include?

A

A summary of the patient's health status and the interventions discussed.

B

Only a record of the time spent at the home.

C

A detailed description of the nurse's appearance.

D

The nurse's personal opinions about the family's lifestyle.

Q135

Which of the following best describes the role of deep breathing and coughing in preventing complications?

A

Increasing the patient's appetite.

B

Removal of mucus and secretions from the airways.

C

Decreasing oxygen consumption.

D

Stimulating bone growth.

Q136

Which of the following best describes the identification of systolic blood pressure using the Korotkoff method?

A

Listening for the first clear, rhythmic tapping sound (Phase I) indicating systolic pressure.

B

Listening for the loudest sound.

C

Listening for the last sound before silence (Phase V) indicating diastolic pressure.

D

Ignoring any sounds until the mercury column falls.

Q137

A 6-year-old patient is refusing to take their medication. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial approach?

A

Demand that the child take the medication immediately, regardless of their resistance.

B

Use simple, age-appropriate language to explain the importance of taking the medication.

C

Explain the medication's side effects in detail to discourage refusal.

D

Ignore the child's refusal and administer the medication via a parent or guardian.

Q138

What is a primary goal of assessing the developmental tasks of the elderly?

A

To focus solely on the patient's medical history.

B

To strictly adhere to a standardized geriatric care protocol.

C

To determine the patient's preferred mode of transportation.

D

To identify potential challenges related to aging and adapt nursing care accordingly.

Q139

Which facility type is MOST likely to provide comprehensive support services for elderly individuals, including medical care and social assistance?

A

Senior citizen home/hospital.

B

A specialized research facility.

C

Social services only.

D

A private residence only.

Q140

A patient experiencing excitement and violence is demonstrating which behavioral symptom?

A

Chronic depression.

B

Generalized anxiety.

C

Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

D

Acute agitation.

Q141

A community health nurse is assessing a family regarding their risk for diabetes. Which of the following is the MOST important initial factor to inquire about?

A

Family history of diabetes

B

Current dietary intake of fruits and vegetables

C

Patient's reported socioeconomic status

D

Patient's current level of physical activity

Q142

A patient post-gallbladder removal surgery is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to address this?

A

Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.

B

Administer a high-fiber diet.

C

Increase fluid intake without assessment.

D

Encourage frequent small meals.